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SOA-C02 · 18% of the exam

Networking and Content Delivery practice questions

10 free Networking and Content Delivery questions for the AWS Certified SysOps Administrator – Associate (SOA-C02) exam, each with the correct answer and an explanation for every option.

What this domain covers

Configuring and troubleshooting VPC networking, DNS and content delivery.

Exam weight
18%
On a real exam
≈ 12 questions
In our bank
106 questions

Topics that come up most

  • VPC routing, NAT gateways and endpoints
  • Security groups vs NACLs
  • VPC Flow Logs
  • Route 53 records and health checks
  • CloudFront origins and caching

How to study it

Trace a packet path for three cases (internet, private subnet, peered VPC); connectivity questions are about which hop is missing.

Sample Networking and Content Delivery questions

Try each one before opening the answer. Original questions written to the official exam objectives.

  1. Question 1

    Users of a chat application behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB) report that their WebSocket sessions drop whenever no messages are exchanged for about one minute. The ALB uses default attribute values. Which setting should a SysOps administrator increase to fix this?

    • AThe load balancer's connection idle timeout attribute
    • BThe load balancer's HTTP client keepalive duration attribute
    • CThe target group's deregistration delay attribute
    • DThe target group's stickiness duration attribute
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) The load balancer's connection idle timeout attribute

    The ALB closes connections that stay idle longer than the connection idle timeout, which defaults to 60 seconds. Increasing this attribute (up to 4000 seconds) keeps quiet WebSocket sessions open.

    • ACorrect. The connection idle timeout is how long a client or target connection can stay inactive, with no data sent or received, before the ALB closes it. The default is 60 seconds, and you can set it from 1 to 4000 seconds. Raising it stops quiet WebSocket sessions from being dropped.
    • BIncorrect. The keepalive duration sets the maximum total lifetime of a persistent client connection, and it keeps counting even when there is no traffic. Its default is 3600 seconds and its minimum is 60 seconds, so it does not explain sessions dropping after one idle minute.
    • CIncorrect. Deregistration delay only controls how long in-flight requests get to finish while a target is being deregistered. It does not control how long an idle connection stays open.
    • DIncorrect. Stickiness duration controls how long the ALB keeps sending a client to the same target, based on a cookie. It does not decide when the ALB closes an idle connection.
  2. Question 2

    A company hosts its public website behind an Application Load Balancer (ALB). DNS for example.com is hosted in Amazon Route 53. Users must be able to reach the site by entering the bare domain example.com, and the record must keep working if the ALB's IP addresses change. Which record should a SysOps administrator create for example.com?

    • AA Route 53 alias record of type A that targets the ALB's DNS name
    • BA CNAME record named example.com whose value is the ALB's DNS name
    • CA standard A record for example.com listing the ALB's current IP addresses
    • DA Route 53 alias record of type CNAME at example.com that targets the ALB
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) A Route 53 alias record of type A that targets the ALB's DNS name

    CNAME records aren't allowed at the zone apex. A Route 53 alias record of type A (or AAAA) can point example.com at an ALB and follows changes to the ALB's IP addresses automatically.

    • ACorrect. You can create alias records at the zone apex, and they can target an Elastic Load Balancing load balancer. Route 53 follows changes to the ALB's IP addresses on its own, and it doesn't charge for alias queries to AWS resources.
    • BIncorrect. You can't create a CNAME record with the same name as the hosted zone (the zone apex).
    • CIncorrect. ALB IP addresses can change. A static A record wouldn't follow those changes, so users would be sent to stale addresses.
    • DIncorrect. Route 53 doesn't support CNAME records at the zone apex, even as alias records. The alias must use a type such as A or AAAA.
  3. Question 3

    A VPC has private subnets in three Availability Zones. All of the private subnets share one route table that sends 0.0.0.0/0 to a single zonal public NAT gateway in AZ-1. The team must keep using zonal NAT gateways. They want an outage in any one AZ to stop affecting outbound internet access for workloads in the other AZs. What should the SysOps administrator do?

    • ACreate a NAT gateway in a public subnet in each AZ, and give each AZ's private subnets a route table that points 0.0.0.0/0 to the NAT gateway in the same AZ
    • BAssociate secondary Elastic IP addresses with the existing NAT gateway so that it can keep serving traffic if AZ-1 becomes unavailable
    • CCreate a second NAT gateway in the same public subnet in AZ-1 and send part of the private subnets' outbound traffic to it
    • DAssociate a security group with the NAT gateway that allows outbound traffic from the private subnet CIDR ranges in all three AZs
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Create a NAT gateway in a public subnet in each AZ, and give each AZ's private subnets a route table that points 0.0.0.0/0 to the NAT gateway in the same AZ

    A zonal NAT gateway lives in one AZ, so a shared gateway is a single point of failure for every AZ that uses it. Put a NAT gateway in each AZ and route each AZ's private subnets to their local gateway.

    • ACorrect. Each zonal NAT gateway is created in one AZ and has redundancy only inside that zone. AWS recommends creating a NAT gateway in each AZ and routing resources to the NAT gateway in their own AZ, so one AZ failure doesn't cut internet access for the others.
    • BIncorrect. Extra IPv4 addresses on a NAT gateway raise the limit on simultaneous connections to each destination. They don't move the NAT gateway out of AZ-1 or protect it from an outage in that AZ.
    • CIncorrect. Both NAT gateways would be in AZ-1. An outage in that AZ would still take away internet access for resources in every AZ.
    • DIncorrect. You can't associate a security group with a NAT gateway. Traffic filtering also does nothing about the gateway depending on a single AZ.
  4. Question 4

    A company has transit gateways in four AWS Regions and several AWS accounts. They connect to on-premises sites through Site-to-Site VPN, AWS Direct Connect, and transit gateway Connect peers for SD-WAN appliances. The network team wants one console that shows a geographic map and a logical topology of the whole network, plus VPN and Connect peer status and transit gateway traffic metrics. Which solution meets these requirements?

    • ARegister the transit gateways in a global network and use the AWS Network Manager dashboards
    • BRun VPC Reachability Analyzer between the on-premises sites and VPCs in each Region
    • CEnable VPC Flow Logs in every VPC and query them with CloudWatch Logs Insights
    • DUse AWS Config advanced queries to list transit gateway and VPN resources across accounts
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Register the transit gateways in a global network and use the AWS Network Manager dashboards

    Registering transit gateways in a global network gives the AWS Network Manager dashboards: geography, topology tree, VPN and Connect peer status, events, and monitoring across Regions and accounts.

    • ACorrect. AWS Global Networks for Transit Gateways, viewed through the AWS Network Manager console, centrally manages transit gateway networks across accounts, Regions, and on-premises locations. Its dashboards include a geography map (VPN, Direct Connect, Connect peers, sites, devices), a topology tree, VPN and Connect peer status, events, and CloudWatch traffic metrics.
    • BIncorrect. Reachability Analyzer checks whether a path exists between a specific source and destination. It doesn't provide an ongoing map, topology, or health dashboard for the whole network.
    • CIncorrect. Flow logs record IP traffic for analysis. They don't give a visual topology or geographic view of transit gateways, Direct Connect, and SD-WAN connections.
    • DIncorrect. AWS Config tracks resource configurations and compliance. It doesn't draw a network topology or show VPN and Connect peer status alongside traffic metrics.
  5. Question 5

    EC2 instances in a VPC subnet have IPv6 addresses and must call third-party APIs that are reachable over IPv6. The instances must be able to start outbound IPv6 connections to the internet. The routing path itself must stop hosts on the internet from starting IPv6 connections to the instances. Which configuration meets these requirements?

    • ACreate an egress-only internet gateway and add a ::/0 route to it in the subnet's route table
    • BCreate a NAT gateway, enable DNS64 on the subnet, and route 64:ff9b::/96 to the NAT gateway
    • CAttach an internet gateway and add a ::/0 route to it in the subnet's route table
    • DCreate a gateway VPC endpoint and add its prefix list route to the subnet's route table
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Create an egress-only internet gateway and add a ::/0 route to it in the subnet's route table

    For outbound-only IPv6 access to the internet, route ::/0 to an egress-only internet gateway. It is stateful and blocks connections started from the internet. NAT gateways with NAT64 only translate IPv6 traffic to IPv4 destinations.

    • ACorrect. An egress-only internet gateway is a stateful, IPv6-only VPC component. It allows outbound IPv6 traffic from instances to the internet and sends responses back, but it prevents the internet from starting IPv6 connections to the instances. You use it by adding a ::/0 route that points to it.
    • BIncorrect. NAT64 with DNS64 translates IPv6 traffic to IPv4 so that IPv6-only workloads can reach IPv4-only services. It does not provide a path from IPv6 to IPv6 destinations. The AWS walkthrough still routes ::/0 to an egress-only internet gateway or an internet gateway for native IPv6 traffic.
    • CIncorrect. IPv6 addresses are public. AWS notes that pointing ::/0 to an internet gateway allows external IPv6 hosts to start connections to the instances, so this path does not block inbound connections.
    • DIncorrect. Gateway VPC endpoints give private access only to supported AWS services (Amazon S3 and DynamoDB). They do not provide general outbound access to third-party APIs on the internet.
  6. Question 6

    A SysOps administrator is reviewing the default VPC in a newly created AWS account before deciding whether to keep it. Which statement about the default VPC is accurate?

    • AIts main route table sends 0.0.0.0/0 to an attached internet gateway, and its default subnets give public IPv4 addresses to instances at launch.
    • BIt uses the 10.0.0.0/16 CIDR block and has a NAT gateway in each Availability Zone, so instances reach the internet privately.
    • CIf it is deleted, the account can't recreate it; only AWS Support can provision a new default VPC in that Region.
    • DIt has a single /24 default subnet in the Region's first Availability Zone, and you must add subnets for the other zones yourself.
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Its main route table sends 0.0.0.0/0 to an attached internet gateway, and its default subnets give public IPv4 addresses to instances at launch.

    A default VPC uses 172.31.0.0/16. It has a public /20 default subnet in each AZ and an attached internet gateway, and its main route table sends 0.0.0.0/0 to that gateway. If you delete it, you can create a new default VPC yourself.

    • ACorrect. AWS creates an internet gateway, attaches it to the default VPC, and adds a 0.0.0.0/0 route to the internet gateway in the main route table. Default subnets are public subnets, and MapPublicIpOnLaunch is true, so instances get public IPv4 addresses.
    • BIncorrect. The default VPC uses 172.31.0.0/16. It doesn't include NAT gateways. Its subnets are public and route through an internet gateway.
    • CIncorrect. If you delete the default VPC, you can create a new one yourself with the console's Create Default VPC action or the create-default-vpc command. You can't restore the original VPC that you deleted.
    • DIncorrect. AWS creates a /20 default subnet in every Availability Zone in the Region, not one /24 subnet in a single zone.
  7. Question 7

    A production Application Load Balancer (ALB) was deployed by an AWS CloudFormation stack. Several operators have IAM permissions that include elasticloadbalancing:DeleteLoadBalancer. They sometimes work directly in the EC2 console. A SysOps administrator must make sure the ALB itself can't be deleted by mistake through the console or the API unless someone first deliberately removes a safeguard. What should the administrator do?

    • ATurn on the deletion protection attribute on the ALB
    • BTurn on termination protection on the CloudFormation stack
    • CSet DeletionPolicy: Retain on the ALB resource in the template
    • DTurn on termination protection on the EC2 instances behind the ALB
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Turn on the deletion protection attribute on the ALB

    ALB deletion protection blocks every DeleteLoadBalancer attempt until the attribute is turned off. CloudFormation stack termination protection and DeletionPolicy only control CloudFormation stack operations, and EC2 termination protection only protects the instances.

    • ACorrect. Deletion protection is an ALB attribute (deletion_protection.enabled). When it is on, the load balancer can't be deleted until the attribute is turned off. This applies no matter how the delete call is made, so even a user with DeleteLoadBalancer permission must first take a deliberate step.
    • BIncorrect. Stack termination protection only makes attempts to delete the stack fail. It doesn't stop a user from deleting the ALB directly in the EC2 console or through the Elastic Load Balancing API.
    • CIncorrect. DeletionPolicy controls what CloudFormation does with the resource when the stack is deleted or the resource is removed from the template. Retain keeps the ALB in those cases. It doesn't stop anyone from deleting the ALB directly outside CloudFormation.
    • DIncorrect. EC2 termination protection stops the registered target instances from being terminated. It has no effect on whether the load balancer can be deleted.
  8. Question 8

    A SysOps administrator is adding rules to a custom network ACL. They need to understand how the rules are applied when an inbound packet reaches the subnet. Which statement describes how network ACL rules are evaluated?

    • ARules are checked from the lowest rule number upward, and the first rule that matches the packet is applied.
    • BAll matching rules are checked together, and a matching deny rule overrides any matching allow rule.
    • CRules are checked from the highest rule number downward, and the first rule that matches the packet is applied.
    • DAll matching rules are checked together, and the packet is allowed if any one of the matching rules allows it.
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Rules are checked from the lowest rule number upward, and the first rule that matches the packet is applied.

    Network ACL rules are evaluated in ascending rule-number order, and the first matching rule is applied regardless of any conflicting higher-numbered rule.

    • ACorrect. Network ACL rules are evaluated starting with the lowest-numbered rule. As soon as a rule matches, it is applied, even if a higher-numbered rule would say otherwise. For this reason, a deny rule for specific ports must have a lower number than a broader allow rule.
    • BIncorrect. This is how IAM policies are evaluated, where an explicit deny overrides an allow. Network ACLs apply the first matching rule by rule number. If an allow rule with a lower number matches first, the packet is allowed.
    • CIncorrect. Evaluation starts at the lowest rule number, not the highest. Reversing the order would change which of two conflicting rules takes effect.
    • DIncorrect. This describes security groups, which contain only allow rules and check all of them. Network ACLs can contain deny rules and apply only the first matching rule by rule number.
  9. Question 9

    A SysOps administrator is placing an Application Load Balancer (ALB) in front of a gRPC microservice that runs on EC2 instances. Clients send gRPC calls, and the ALB must route them to the instances and health check the service. Which configuration meets these requirements?

    • AAn HTTPS listener forwarding to an instance target group with protocol version gRPC and a health check path in /package.service/method format
    • BAn HTTP listener on port 80 forwarding to an instance target group with protocol version gRPC and a gRPC health check method
    • CAn HTTPS listener forwarding to an instance target group that uses the default HTTP/1.1 protocol version and an HTTP health check path
    • DAn HTTPS listener forwarding to a Lambda target group with protocol version gRPC that invokes a function wrapping the service
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) An HTTPS listener forwarding to an instance target group with protocol version gRPC and a health check path in /package.service/method format

    An ALB supports gRPC when the target group uses the gRPC protocol version. That needs an HTTPS listener, instance or IP targets, and a custom health check in /package.service/method format with gRPC success codes.

    • ACorrect. With the gRPC protocol version, HTTPS is the only supported listener protocol and forward is the only supported rule action. Targets must be instances or IP addresses. You must give a custom health check method in /package.service/method format, along with gRPC success codes.
    • BIncorrect. With the gRPC protocol version, the only supported listener protocol is HTTPS, so an HTTP listener can't be used.
    • CIncorrect. A gRPC request sent to a target group with the HTTP/1.1 protocol version results in an error. The target group must use the gRPC protocol version (or HTTP/2 if the targets support gRPC).
    • DIncorrect. With the gRPC protocol version, the only supported target types are instance and ip. Lambda functions can't be used as targets.
  10. Question 10

    A SysOps administrator must give an analytics team a record of every HTTP request that an Application Load Balancer (ALB) receives. Each record must include the client IP address, the request URL, and the processing times. The records must be stored in Amazon S3 so the team can query them later with Amazon Athena. Which action meets these requirements?

    • ATurn on the access logs attribute for the ALB and specify an S3 bucket that has a bucket policy allowing log delivery
    • BCreate an AWS CloudTrail trail that records Elastic Load Balancing events and delivers them to an S3 bucket
    • CTurn on VPC Flow Logs for the ALB's elastic network interfaces and publish the flow log records to an S3 bucket
    • DExport the ALB's RequestCount and TargetResponseTime CloudWatch metrics to an S3 bucket on a schedule
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Turn on the access logs attribute for the ALB and specify an S3 bucket that has a bucket policy allowing log delivery

    ALB access logs, which are off by default, store one entry per request in S3, including the client IP, request line and processing times. CloudTrail, VPC Flow Logs and CloudWatch metrics don't provide HTTP request-level records.

    • ACorrect. ALB access logs are off by default. Once you turn them on, Elastic Load Balancing writes compressed log files to the S3 bucket you specify. Each entry describes one request, including client:port, the request line (method and URL), and the request, target and response processing times. Athena can query these files directly.
    • BIncorrect. CloudTrail records API calls made to the Elastic Load Balancing service, such as changes to listeners or attributes. It doesn't record the HTTP requests that clients send through the load balancer.
    • CIncorrect. Flow logs capture IP traffic metadata such as source and destination addresses, ports, protocol, packets and bytes. They don't include HTTP details such as the request URL or the load balancer's processing times.
    • DIncorrect. CloudWatch metrics are aggregated statistics over a time period. They don't contain one record per request, so they can't show which client requested which URL.

Networking and Content Delivery: FAQs

How much of the SOA-C02 exam is Networking and Content Delivery?

Networking and Content Delivery is 18% of the SOA-C02 exam by the official exam guide's weighting, which on a 65-question form works out to roughly 12 questions. The real exam's exact split varies by form.

What does the Networking and Content Delivery domain cover?

Configuring and troubleshooting VPC networking, DNS and content delivery.

How should I study Networking and Content Delivery for SOA-C02?

Trace a packet path for three cases (internet, private subnet, peered VPC); connectivity questions are about which hop is missing.

Where can I practise more Networking and Content Delivery questions?

This page has 10 free Networking and Content Delivery questions with answers. CertRidge's SOA-C02 question bank has 106 questions in this domain. Every practice exam result breaks your score down by domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Get Networking and Content Delivery exam-ready

The full SOA-C02 bank has 106 Networking and Content Delivery questions. Timed practice exams match the real exam's length and domain weights, every result shows your score per domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Not affiliated with AWS; questions are original and never copied from the real exam.