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CompTIA · 220-1201

220-1201 practice questions with answers

15 free practice questions for the CompTIA A+ Core 1 (220-1201) exam, spread across the exam's domains. Try each one, then open the answer to see why every option is right or wrong.

  1. Question 1 · Mobile Devices

    A user reports that the top-row keys on their laptop now change brightness and volume when pressed. They must hold the Fn key to get F1–F12, and they want plain F1–F12 back as the default. What should the technician check first?

    • AThe Fn Lock toggle or the BIOS/UEFI setting for default function-key behavior
    • BThe Windows keyboard layout and input language selected in Settings
    • CThe Filter Keys accessibility option in the Ease of Access settings
    • DThe Num Lock state that enables the laptop's embedded numeric keypad
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) The Fn Lock toggle or the BIOS/UEFI setting for default function-key behavior

    On a laptop, whether the top row acts as media keys or F1–F12 by default is set by Fn Lock or a BIOS/UEFI function-key setting. Layout, Filter Keys and Num Lock don't control it.

    • AOn many laptops, Fn Lock (often a key such as Fn+Esc or Fn on its own) or a firmware setting decides whether the top row sends media actions or F1–F12 by default. Switching it back restores standard function-key behavior.
    • BThe keyboard layout controls which characters the alphanumeric keys produce, such as US vs. UK symbols. It doesn't decide whether the top row sends media commands or F1–F12.
    • CFilter Keys ignores brief or repeated keystrokes to help users with tremors. It doesn't swap the top row between media actions and function keys.
    • DOn some laptops, Num Lock turns certain letter keys into an embedded numeric keypad. It doesn't affect the F1–F12 row.
  2. Question 2 · Mobile Devices

    A technician installs a replacement keyboard of the correct model in a laptop. After reassembly, an entire group of keys does not respond. What should the technician check FIRST?

    • AThat the keyboard ribbon cable is fully inserted and its connector latch is locked
    • BThat the keyboard backlight option is enabled in the BIOS/UEFI settings
    • CThat the laptop battery is fully charged before testing the new keyboard
    • DThat the display cable was reconnected to the motherboard after reassembly
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) That the keyboard ribbon cable is fully inserted and its connector latch is locked

    When keys fail after a laptop keyboard replacement, first check that the ribbon cable is fully seated and its connector latch is locked. Poorly seated ribbon cables are the most common cause.

    • ACorrect. Laptop keyboards connect through a thin ribbon cable to a latching (often ZIF) connector. A partially seated, unlatched or creased ribbon cable commonly leaves groups of keys dead after a replacement.
    • BIncorrect. The backlight setting only controls key illumination. It does not stop keys from registering keystrokes.
    • CIncorrect. The keyboard works the same on battery or AC power once the system is running, so charge level would not disable a group of keys.
    • DIncorrect. A disconnected display cable would cause video problems, not unresponsive keys.
  3. Question 3 · Networking

    Which technology allows multiple devices on a private network to share a single public IP address when accessing the internet?

    • ANAT
    • BDNS
    • CQoS
    • DSSH
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) NAT

    • ANetwork Address Translation rewrites private internal addresses to a shared public address (and back for return traffic), letting many devices share one public IP.
    • BDNS translates domain names to IP addresses; it doesn't handle address sharing or translation between private and public address spaces.
    • CQuality of Service prioritizes certain traffic types over others; it doesn't translate or share IP addresses.
    • DSSH is a secure remote-access protocol, unrelated to address translation or sharing.
  4. Question 4 · Networking

    A technician is explaining to a client how 5G cellular service differs from 4G LTE. Which statement is accurate?

    • A5G can use low-, mid-, and high-band spectrum, from below 3 GHz up to 100 GHz and beyond
    • B5G is limited to the same sub-3 GHz bands as 4G and gains speed only through compression
    • C5G raises the design latency from about 1 ms on 4G to roughly 30–50 ms to improve reliability
    • D5G peak data rates are only about twice those of 4G, so its main benefit is wider coverage
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) 5G can use low-, mid-, and high-band spectrum, from below 3 GHz up to 100 GHz and beyond

    5G uses more spectrum than 4G, across low, mid and high (millimeter wave) bands, which gives it much higher peak speeds and a far lower latency target (about 1 ms versus 30–50 ms on 4G).

    • ACorrect. 5G gets more radio spectrum by using low, mid and high bands that run from sub-3 GHz up to 100 GHz and beyond. The high-band (millimeter wave) frequencies are a big part of its higher throughput.
    • BIncorrect. 5G does not stay inside 4G's frequency range. It adds mid- and high-band spectrum well above 3 GHz, and that extra spectrum is a key reason for its higher throughput.
    • CIncorrect. This reverses the figures. 4G latency is typically around 30–50 ms, and 5G's design target is about 1 ms. Real-world 5G latency is higher than that target but still lower than 4G.
    • DIncorrect. 5G's peak rate is about 20 Gbps, roughly 20 times what 4G can reach. Some 5G bands, such as millimeter wave, actually have shorter range than 4G, not wider coverage.
  5. Question 5 · Networking

    A user connects a second wireless router behind their ISP-provided router. Both devices perform NAT, and some online games and services now behave oddly because of double NAT. Which setting on the second router should a technician configure to resolve the problem?

    • ABridge mode, so it stops routing and passes client traffic through to the ISP router's network
    • BWPS, so wireless devices can join the second router's network with a push-button pairing
    • CA static WAN address, so it keeps the same IP address on the ISP router's network
    • DA different DHCP scope, so its clients use a subnet distinct from the ISP router's subnet
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Bridge mode, so it stops routing and passes client traffic through to the ISP router's network

    Double NAT happens when two routers in series each translate addresses. Putting the second router in bridge mode disables its NAT and DHCP, so only the ISP router performs NAT.

    • ACorrect. Bridge (access point) mode turns off the second router's own NAT and DHCP. It then acts as a switch or access point, and its clients get addresses from the ISP router, so only one device performs NAT.
    • BIncorrect. WPS only makes it easier for devices to join the wireless network. It does not change how the router routes or translates traffic, so double NAT remains.
    • CIncorrect. A fixed WAN address can make port forwarding on the first router easier to set up, but the second router still performs its own NAT. Traffic is still translated twice.
    • DIncorrect. Changing the second router's DHCP scope keeps it routing and translating a separate private subnet. This is exactly the double-NAT setup that causes the problem.
  6. Question 6 · Hardware

    A technician is choosing a CPU cooler for a new build. Which processor specification, given in watts, should the technician compare against the cooler's rating to make sure the cooler can handle the CPU's heat output under sustained load?

    • AThermal design power (TDP)
    • BBase clock frequency
    • CMaximum boost clock frequency
    • DL3 cache size
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Thermal design power (TDP)

    TDP, measured in watts, shows the heat a CPU is designed to produce under sustained load, so it is the figure to compare against a cooler's rating. Clock speeds and cache size are performance specifications, not thermal ratings.

    • ACorrect. TDP is a watt rating that shows how much heat the CPU is designed to produce under sustained typical workloads. A cooler rated at or above the CPU's TDP is the usual baseline when choosing a cooler.
    • BIncorrect. Base clock is measured in GHz and describes the processor's guaranteed operating speed. It affects power draw, but it is not a watt rating that can be compared with a cooler's capacity.
    • CIncorrect. Boost clock is the highest speed (in GHz) the CPU can reach under favorable conditions. It is a performance figure, not a heat-dissipation rating for sizing a cooler.
    • DIncorrect. L3 cache size is measured in megabytes and affects performance by reducing trips to main memory. It does not tell you how much heat the cooler must remove.
  7. Question 7 · Hardware

    Which RAID level mirrors data across two drives, giving full redundancy but no usable capacity gain, using half the total raw storage?

    • ARAID 1
    • BRAID 0
    • CRAID 5
    • DJBOD
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) RAID 1

    • ARAID 1 mirrors every write across two drives, so if one drive fails the data is still intact on the other — usable capacity equals just one drive's size.
    • BRAID 0 stripes data across drives for speed and full combined capacity, but provides zero redundancy — losing one drive loses all data.
    • CRAID 5 stripes data with distributed parity across three or more drives, not a direct two-drive mirror.
    • DJBOD ("just a bunch of disks") simply concatenates drives into one larger volume with no redundancy at all.
  8. Question 8 · Hardware

    What battery chemistry is standard in modern laptops and phones, offering high energy density without the memory-effect problems of older battery types?

    • ALithium-ion (Li-ion)
    • BLead-acid
    • CNickel-cadmium (NiCd)
    • DAlkaline
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Lithium-ion (Li-ion)

    • ALithium-ion batteries offer high energy density in a compact package and, unlike older NiCd batteries, don't suffer from a significant memory effect.
    • BLead-acid batteries are heavy and bulky, used mainly in vehicles and large UPS units, not laptops or phones.
    • CNiCd is an older battery chemistry with a notable memory effect and lower energy density, largely phased out of consumer mobile devices.
    • DAlkaline is a common disposable battery chemistry (like in AA batteries), not the rechargeable type built into laptops/phones.
  9. Question 9 · Hardware

    A user sits with a sunny window behind them, and their monitor shows sharp, distracting reflections of the window. When choosing a replacement monitor, which characteristic would best reduce this problem?

    • AA matte, anti-glare screen surface
    • BA glossy screen surface with higher contrast
    • CAn IPS panel with wider viewing angles
    • DA panel with a higher refresh rate
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) A matte, anti-glare screen surface

    Reflections come from the screen's surface finish. A matte, anti-glare finish scatters reflected light, while glossy finishes produce sharp reflections. Panel type and refresh rate don't change this.

    • ACorrect. A matte, anti-glare surface scatters incoming light instead of reflecting it as a sharp mirror image, which greatly reduces visible reflections in bright rooms. The tradeoff is that colors may look slightly less vivid than on a glossy panel.
    • BIncorrect. A glossy surface can make images look more vivid in controlled lighting, but it reflects bright light sources as clear mirror-like images. That makes this problem worse.
    • CIncorrect. Wide viewing angles keep color and brightness consistent when the screen is viewed off-axis. Reflections depend on the screen's surface finish, not the panel type.
    • DIncorrect. Refresh rate affects how smooth motion looks. It has no effect on how the screen surface handles reflected light.
  10. Question 10 · Virtualization and Cloud Computing

    A company runs dozens of cloud virtual machines that several departments use. The finance team wants each month's cloud bill broken down by department so costs can be charged back accurately. Which practice best supports this?

    • AApply a consistent department tag to each resource and group cost reports by that tag
    • BEnable rapid elasticity so each department's VMs scale automatically with demand
    • CConsolidate every department's VMs into one shared account and a single region
    • DConvert the VMs to reserved instances billed under a one-year commitment
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Apply a consistent department tag to each resource and group cost reports by that tag

    Consistent resource tags (such as department or cost center) let cloud billing and cost-management tools group metered charges by tag, so each department's costs can be attributed accurately. Elasticity, consolidation and reserved pricing affect how much is spent, not who it is charged to.

    • ACorrect. Tags are key/value labels on cloud resources. When cost allocation tags are activated, billing tools can group and filter costs by tag values such as a department or cost center, which gives a per-department view of metered usage.
    • BIncorrect. Rapid elasticity adjusts capacity to match demand. It can change how much is spent, but it does not label spending by department, so it cannot attribute costs.
    • CIncorrect. Putting all resources in one shared account mixes the departments' spending together. Without labels to separate it, per-department attribution gets harder, not easier.
    • DIncorrect. Reserved or committed pricing can lower the total cost, but it is a pricing model. It does not identify which department used which resource.
  11. Question 11 · Virtualization and Cloud Computing

    A developer is travelling to a remote site with no network access and needs to test a beta build of an application. The build might destabilize the operating system, so it must not affect the laptop's own OS. Which approach best meets these requirements?

    • ARun the build in a guest VM on a hosted hypervisor installed on the laptop
    • BProvision an IaaS virtual machine from a public cloud provider for testing
    • CConnect to a virtual desktop hosted in the company's VDI environment
    • DInstall the build directly on the laptop after creating a restore point
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Run the build in a guest VM on a hosted hypervisor installed on the laptop

    A local hosted hypervisor gives an isolated sandbox VM that runs entirely on the laptop's own hardware, so it works offline. Cloud VMs and VDI need network access, and installing on the host provides no isolation.

    • AA hosted (Type 2) hypervisor runs the VM on the laptop's own hardware, so it works without a network connection. The guest OS acts as a sandbox that separates the test from the host OS, and snapshots allow quick rollback.
    • BA cloud VM would isolate the test, but creating and reaching it requires network connectivity, which is not available at the site.
    • CVDI sessions run on central servers and are reached over the network, so they cannot be used without connectivity.
    • DA restore point can undo some changes, but the build would still run on the host OS and could destabilize it. That violates the isolation requirement.
  12. Question 12 · Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

    A user reports that pages from a high-volume laser printer look sharp and complete as they come out, but the text smears and wipes off when a finger is rubbed across it. Which component should the technician suspect first?

    • AThe fuser assembly
    • BThe transfer roller
    • CThe imaging drum
    • DThe pickup roller
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) The fuser assembly

    Toner that forms a correct image but smears or rubs off was never melted and bonded to the paper, which is the fuser's job. Transfer, drum and paper-feed problems cause different symptoms.

    • AThe fuser uses heat and pressure to melt toner and bond it to the paper. When it is worn or not heating properly, the image transfers correctly but stays loose on the page and wipes off.
    • BThe transfer roller moves toner from the drum onto the paper. When it fails, pages usually come out faint or blank. A complete image that smears points to a later step.
    • CA damaged or worn drum usually causes repeating marks, lines or ghost images. It does not cause toner that rubs off a correctly formed image.
    • DPickup rollers feed paper from the tray. Worn rollers cause misfeeds, jams or multiple sheets being pulled, not toner that won't stay on the page.
  13. Question 13 · Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

    A desktop computer will not boot. Its motherboard has no diagnostic LEDs or POST code display, and a speaker is properly connected to its speaker header. When the system is powered on, the fans spin and the power LED lights, but nothing appears on the monitor and there is no beep at all, not even the usual single beep. What does this most likely indicate?

    • APOST is halting before it can report errors, pointing to a core part such as the CPU or motherboard
    • BPOST completed successfully, and the fault is in the monitor or its video cable instead
    • CThe boot drive has failed, so the system cannot locate an operating system to load
    • DA memory module has failed, which the firmware reports by staying silent rather than beeping
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) POST is halting before it can report errors, pointing to a core part such as the CPU or motherboard

    With a working speaker attached, complete silence means POST never reached the point of reporting success or a beep-coded error. That points to a fundamental failure such as the CPU or motherboard.

    • AA connected speaker that stays silent means POST never got far enough to signal success or report a beep code. That suggests a fundamental failure of a core component such as the CPU, the motherboard or its firmware. Many modern boards have no speaker and use POST code LEDs or displays instead, but this board relies on its speaker.
    • BA successful POST normally produces the single success beep, which did not happen here. If the video adapter had failed, POST would usually report it with a video beep code rather than total silence.
    • CA failed boot drive is found only after POST finishes. The system would beep normally and usually show a 'no boot device' message, not stay completely silent.
    • DMemory failures are among the most common faults that firmware reports with a specific beep pattern. Silence is not the standard memory error indicator, and with a working speaker, a bad RAM module would usually produce a beep code.
  14. Question 14 · Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

    A technician adds two new RAM modules to a desktop next to two existing modules of a different brand and speed. The system now fails to POST. Reseating all four modules did not help. What is the MOST likely cause?

    • AThe installed memory now exceeds what a 32-bit operating system can address
    • BThe modules are in non-matching slots, so the board drops to single-channel mode
    • CThe old and new modules have incompatible voltage, timing, or density requirements
    • DThe CMOS battery failed during the upgrade and erased the stored memory settings
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: C) The old and new modules have incompatible voltage, timing, or density requirements

    Mixing RAM with different voltage, timing, or density requirements can stop a system from POSTing even when each set works alone. Test each set separately to confirm the incompatibility.

    • AIncorrect. A 32-bit OS limit only affects how much RAM the OS can use after it loads. POST runs in firmware before any OS starts, so this limit can't cause a POST failure.
    • BIncorrect. Poor slot placement can make the board run memory in single-channel or flex mode, which lowers bandwidth. The system still POSTs and boots.
    • CCorrect. Modules from different brands or speed grades can need different voltages or timings, or use densities the board can't combine. Each set may work alone but fail together. Test each set separately and check the motherboard's memory compatibility list.
    • DIncorrect. A failed CMOS battery resets the clock and firmware settings to defaults. The board then uses default SPD memory settings and still POSTs. It doesn't explain a failure that began right after mixing modules.
  15. Question 15 · Hardware and Network Troubleshooting

    A Windows print job has shown "in queue" for over an hour with no progress, and every job sent after it is waiting behind it. The printer shows no errors on its control panel. What is the best first troubleshooting step?

    • ARestart the Print Spooler service and delete the stuck job from the queue
    • BReplace the toner cartridge to clear a possible low-toner condition
    • CInstall additional memory in the printer so it can buffer larger jobs
    • DRun the printer's calibration routine to realign its imaging components
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Restart the Print Spooler service and delete the stuck job from the queue

    When a single job blocks the whole queue, the standard first fix is to restart the Print Spooler service and clear the stuck job. Hardware fixes such as toner, memory or calibration address different symptoms.

    • AA hung spooler or a corrupted job is the usual cause of a stalled queue. Microsoft documents restarting the Print Spooler service to clear stuck print jobs, and removing the blocking job lets the rest print.
    • BLow toner usually causes faded output or a warning on the printer, not jobs frozen in the computer's queue. The printer also shows no errors.
    • CAdding printer memory can help with complex pages, but it doesn't release a job stuck in the Windows spooler. It's an upgrade, not a first step.
    • DCalibration fixes print-quality problems such as color registration. It doesn't affect jobs that never leave the queue.

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Original questions written from the official exam guide. Not affiliated with CompTIA; never copied from the real exam.