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220-1202 · 28% of the exam

Security practice questions

10 free Security questions for the CompTIA A+ Core 2 (220-1202) exam, each with the correct answer and an explanation for every option.

What this domain covers

Security for end users and devices: physical and logical controls, wireless security, malware removal and securing workstations and mobile devices.

Exam weight
28%
On a real exam
≈ 25 questions
In our bank
161 questions

Topics that come up most

  • Physical security and authentication methods
  • Wireless security protocols
  • Malware types and removal steps
  • Windows security settings and BitLocker
  • Mobile device and data destruction policies

How to study it

Learn the malware removal steps in order; they're tested as a sequence, just like the troubleshooting method.

Sample Security questions

Try each one before opening the answer. Original questions written to the official exam objectives.

  1. Question 1

    A company is retiring a batch of laptops whose drives hold sensitive customer data. Management wants the disposal process to follow a recognized published guideline that defines clear, purge, and destroy methods, rather than an informal in-house procedure. Which guideline should the technician reference?

    • ANIST SP 800-88
    • BNIST SP 800-63
    • CNIST SP 800-61
    • DISO 9001
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) NIST SP 800-88

    NIST SP 800-88 is the media sanitization guideline that defines the clear, purge, and destroy methods. Organizations such as Microsoft use it so they can show that drives holding sensitive data were disposed of properly.

    • ANIST SP 800-88 is NIST's guideline for media sanitization. It is the source of the clear, purge, and destroy categories. Microsoft, for example, states that its datacenters follow the NIST SP 800-88 clear and purge guidelines and destroy devices with procedures that meet SP 800-88.
    • BNIST SP 800-63 is NIST's digital identity guideline. It covers how users are identified and authenticated, not how storage media is sanitized before disposal.
    • CNIST SP 800-61 gives recommendations for responding to computer security incidents. It doesn't define clear, purge, and destroy methods for storage media.
    • DISO 9001 is a quality management system standard. It doesn't define media sanitization methods such as clear, purge, or destroy.
  2. Question 2

    A user installs a free PDF converter. The converter works, but it also changes the browser's default search engine and inserts extra ads into web pages. It does not encrypt files, hide from the operating system, or spread to other computers. Security software flags it but doesn't classify it as malware. Which category best describes this software?

    • APotentially unwanted program
    • BRansomware payload
    • CKernel-mode rootkit
    • DSelf-propagating worm
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Potentially unwanted program

    Software that comes with a legitimate utility and adds ads or changes browser settings, without being classed as malware, is a potentially unwanted program (PUP/PUA). Ransomware, rootkits, and worms are all malware with clearly malicious behavior that this program doesn't show.

    • ACorrect. A PUP (Microsoft calls it a PUA) is not classed as malware, but it does things the user likely didn't want, such as showing ads, injecting ads into web pages, changing browser settings, or installing bundled software. Antivirus tools can detect, block, and quarantine PUPs separately from malware.
    • BIncorrect. Ransomware is malware that encrypts files or locks the device and then demands payment. The scenario says no files are encrypted and nothing is held for ransom.
    • CIncorrect. A rootkit is malware that hides deep in the operating system to conceal itself and keep privileged access. This program doesn't hide from the OS, and it's flagged as unwanted rather than malicious.
    • DIncorrect. A worm is malware that spreads on its own to other devices over networks, shares, or removable media. The scenario says the program doesn't spread.
  3. Question 3

    A company wants to stop browser hijackers (unwanted toolbars, changed homepage or search settings) from being installed in the first place, not just clean them up afterward. Which set of measures is MOST effective as prevention?

    • AAllow installs only from official vendor sites or the Microsoft Store, keep browsers updated, and train users to decline bundled offers in installers
    • BRun a weekly full antivirus scan, reset browser settings every month, and remove unfamiliar extensions whenever users report them
    • CClear browser cache and cookies every day, turn on private browsing mode by default, and block all third-party cookies in each browser
    • DCreate a system restore point every day and roll back to it whenever the homepage or default search engine changes unexpectedly
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Allow installs only from official vendor sites or the Microsoft Store, keep browsers updated, and train users to decline bundled offers in installers

    Browser hijackers usually arrive bundled with other software. Limiting installs to official sources, keeping browsers patched and teaching users to decline bundled offers prevents infection, while scans, resets and restore points only clean up afterward.

    • ACorrect. Microsoft explains that unwanted software, including browser modifiers, often comes bundled with other downloaded apps. It recommends downloading only from official websites or the Microsoft Store. Keeping browsers updated and teaching users to uncheck bundled extras in installers block the main ways hijackers get onto a system.
    • BIncorrect. These steps find or undo a hijacker after it is already installed. They are cleanup, not measures that stop the infection from happening.
    • CIncorrect. These are privacy settings. They do nothing to stop a bundled installer from adding an extension or changing the homepage and search settings.
    • DIncorrect. Rolling back to a restore point is a recovery step after the hijacker has already made changes. It does not stop the hijacker from being installed.
  4. Question 4

    A company requires employees to clear their desks of sensitive documents, sticky notes with passwords, and unlocked devices before leaving for the day. What is this policy called?

    • AA clean desk policy
    • BAn Acceptable Use Policy
    • CAn SLA
    • DA chain of custody form
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) A clean desk policy

    • AA clean desk policy requires sensitive materials — printed documents, written-down passwords, unlocked devices — to be secured or put away when an employee isn't actively at their desk, reducing the risk of exposure to anyone who might pass by unattended, whether a coworker, a visitor, or after-hours cleaning staff.
    • BAn AUP governs how employees may use company IT resources broadly; a clean desk policy is a distinct, more specific physical-security practice.
    • CAn SLA defines measurable service commitments, unrelated to physical desk/workspace security practices.
    • DA chain of custody form documents evidence handling for an investigation, unrelated to a daily desk-security policy.
  5. Question 5

    A help desk technician investigates a workstation after a user's banking and email credentials were stolen. The technician finds a hidden program that silently records everything typed on the device, including usernames and passwords, and periodically sends that log to a remote server. Which type of malware does this describe?

    • AKeylogger
    • BRansomware
    • CWorm
    • DAdware
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Keylogger

    Malware that silently records typed input such as usernames and passwords and sends it to an attacker is a keylogger. Ransomware extorts, worms self-propagate and adware shows ads.

    • ACorrect. A keylogger captures what the user types on the keyboard, such as credentials, and sends the captured data to the attacker. Microsoft describes a key logger as collecting and sending information about the keys you press.
    • BIncorrect. Ransomware encrypts files or otherwise blocks use of the device, then demands payment. Its goal is extortion, not secretly logging what the user types.
    • CIncorrect. A worm is defined by spreading itself to other devices, for example through network shares, email or removable drives. Recording typed input is not what makes something a worm.
    • DIncorrect. Adware displays unwanted advertisements or promotions. It does not record keyboard input to steal credentials.
  6. Question 6

    A company wants to stop tailgating at its data center entrance. Each person entering must be held in a small enclosed space where the inner door stays locked until the outer door has closed and the person has been authenticated. Which physical security control meets this requirement?

    • AAccess control vestibule (mantrap)
    • BBollards around the building entrance
    • CBadge reader on a single entry door
    • DVideo surveillance of the entrance
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Access control vestibule (mantrap)

    An access control vestibule (formerly called a mantrap) uses interlocking doors to let one authenticated person through at a time, which physically prevents tailgating. Bollards, single-door badge readers and cameras protect the perimeter, authenticate one person, or only detect tailgating.

    • ACorrect. An access control vestibule, once called a mantrap, is a small enclosure with two interlocking doors. The inner door opens only after the outer door closes and the person is authenticated, which physically stops a second person from following them in.
    • BIncorrect. Bollards are sturdy posts that protect a building's exterior, mainly from vehicles. They do not authenticate people or stop someone from following an authorized person through a door.
    • CIncorrect. A badge reader authenticates the person who swipes, but once the door is open, someone else can walk in behind them. A single door cannot hold people between two interlocked doors.
    • DIncorrect. Cameras can detect and record tailgating, which makes them a detective control. They do not physically stop an unauthorized person from entering.
  7. Question 7

    Several front-desk employees at a company report receiving phone calls from someone claiming to be from the company's bank. The caller ID shows the bank's name, and the caller urgently asks each employee to read back an account number and a one-time reset code. Which type of social engineering attack is this?

    • AVishing
    • BSmishing
    • CWhaling
    • DSpear phishing
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Vishing

    A phishing attempt made over a live or automated phone call, often with a spoofed caller ID that impersonates a bank, is vishing. Smishing uses text messages, and whaling and spear phishing describe who is targeted, not the channel.

    • ACorrect. Vishing uses live or automated phone calls. The attacker often pretends to be a bank, tech support or a government office and pressures the victim into giving up account numbers or reset codes. A spoofed caller ID makes the call look legitimate.
    • BIncorrect. Smishing uses fraudulent text messages to lure victims to fake websites or to a spoofed phone number. In this scenario the attacker called the employees and pressured them during the call.
    • CIncorrect. Whaling targets executives or other 'big fish.' Here the targets are front-desk staff, and the deciding factor is that the attack happens over a phone call.
    • DIncorrect. Spear phishing is highly targeted: the attacker researches a specific person or small group and refers to real projects or colleagues. These calls use a generic bank pretext against several staff, and the attack happens by phone.
  8. Question 8

    A company requires every visitor to sign a log at the front desk with their name, the employee they are visiting, and their arrival and departure times. What is the main security purpose of this log?

    • AIt provides an audit trail of who was on site and when, which supports accountability and investigations
    • BIt authenticates visitors so they can enter secured areas without needing an escort
    • CIt prevents tailgating by physically stopping unauthorized people at the entrance
    • DIt verifies each visitor's identity by matching their photo ID against an employee database
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) It provides an audit trail of who was on site and when, which supports accountability and investigations

    A visitor log is a detective, record-keeping control: it creates an audit trail of who was on site and when. Physical security still relies on other layers, such as badges, escorts, and entry barriers.

    • ACorrect. A visitor log records who was present and at what times. This supports accountability and gives investigators a starting point if an incident or theft is discovered later.
    • BIncorrect. A log records presence; it does not authenticate anyone or grant access. Badges and escort requirements are separate controls that decide where a visitor may go.
    • CIncorrect. A log is a record, not a barrier. Controls such as access control vestibules, turnstiles, or guards are used to physically stop tailgating.
    • DIncorrect. A sign-in log only captures what the visitor writes down. Checking ID is a separate step, and visitors are not employees, so they would not be in an employee database.
  9. Question 9

    A company installs an agent on every workstation and server. The agent continuously collects behavioral telemetry such as process activity, registry and file changes, and network connections. It raises alerts on suspicious activity that signatures would miss. The company's own security analysts use a central console to investigate those alerts and isolate compromised machines. Monitoring covers endpoints only. Which type of solution is this?

    • AEndpoint detection and response (EDR)
    • BExtended detection and response (XDR)
    • CManaged detection and response (MDR)
    • DSignature-based antivirus software
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Endpoint detection and response (EDR)

    EDR collects behavioral telemetry from endpoints, raises alerts, and lets analysts investigate and contain threats such as by isolating a device. XDR extends this across identities, email, and apps, and MDR outsources the analyst work to a provider.

    • ACorrect. EDR continuously collects behavioral telemetry from endpoints, creates alerts and incidents, and gives analysts response actions such as isolating a device. In this scenario, the company's own team runs it and the scope is limited to endpoints.
    • BIncorrect. XDR correlates detections across several domains, including endpoints, identities, email, and cloud apps, into combined incidents. This scenario covers endpoints only, which is EDR.
    • CIncorrect. MDR is a service in which an outside provider's analysts monitor, triage, and investigate incidents for the customer. In this scenario, the company's own analysts do that work.
    • DIncorrect. Traditional antivirus compares files against known malware signatures. It doesn't record behavioral telemetry or give analysts investigation and isolation tools from a central console.
  10. Question 10

    A company requires all workstations to install vendor security updates within a set number of days after release. Compliance is tracked and verified from a central console. What is the primary security benefit of this policy?

    • AIt shortens how long publicly disclosed flaws stay exploitable on company devices
    • BIt protects devices from zero-day exploits that have no vendor fix available yet
    • CIt replaces anti-malware software by detecting and quarantining malicious files
    • DIt enforces least privilege by removing local administrator rights from users
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) It shortens how long publicly disclosed flaws stay exploitable on company devices

    Timely, verified patching mainly reduces the window in which known, already-fixed vulnerabilities can be exploited on unpatched devices. It doesn't stop zero-days, and it doesn't replace anti-malware or access controls.

    • ACorrect. Once a vendor releases a fix, the flaw is publicly known, and attackers target devices that haven't installed it yet. Enforcing a short deadline and verifying installs shrinks that window of exposure.
    • BIncorrect. A zero-day has no official patch yet, so a patching policy can't fix it. Until a patch ships, the only options are workarounds and other controls.
    • CIncorrect. Updates fix flaws in code, but they don't scan for or quarantine malware. Anti-malware is a separate control that works alongside patching.
    • DIncorrect. Least privilege is enforced through account and permission management, not by installing vendor security updates.

Security: FAQs

How much of the 220-1202 exam is Security?

Security is 28% of the 220-1202 exam by the official exam guide's weighting, which on a 90-question form works out to roughly 25 questions. The real exam's exact split varies by form.

What does the Security domain cover?

Security for end users and devices: physical and logical controls, wireless security, malware removal and securing workstations and mobile devices.

How should I study Security for 220-1202?

Learn the malware removal steps in order; they're tested as a sequence, just like the troubleshooting method.

Where can I practise more Security questions?

This page has 10 free Security questions with answers. CertRidge's 220-1202 question bank has 161 questions in this domain. Every practice exam result breaks your score down by domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Get Security exam-ready

The full 220-1202 bank has 161 Security questions. Timed practice exams match the real exam's length and domain weights, every result shows your score per domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Not affiliated with CompTIA; questions are original and never copied from the real exam.