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CompTIA · SY0-701

SY0-701 practice questions with answers

15 free practice questions for the CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) exam, spread across the exam's domains. Try each one, then open the answer to see why every option is right or wrong.

  1. Question 1 · General Security Concepts

    An organization runs a recurring security awareness training program that teaches staff to recognize phishing and report suspicious activity. Which control category and control type best describe this program?

    • AOperational and preventive
    • BTechnical and detective
    • CPhysical and corrective
    • DTechnical and compensating
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Operational and preventive

    In SY0-701 terms, security awareness training is an operational control, because people carry it out. It is preventive because it aims to stop incidents before they occur.

    • ATraining is carried out by people rather than by technology, so it is an operational control. Its goal is to stop incidents such as successful phishing before they happen, which makes it preventive.
    • BTraining is not enforced by hardware or software, and its main purpose is not to find events after they occur, as an IDS or log review does.
    • CTraining is not a physical barrier like a lock or fence, and it does not restore systems after an incident.
    • DTraining is not implemented in technology. It is also a planned control in its own right, not an alternative used because a required control can't be implemented.
  2. Question 2 · General Security Concepts

    The security team places a document named "Q3-salaries-confidential.xlsx" on a file share. No one has a legitimate reason to open it, and any access triggers an alert. What is this deception technique?

    • AA honeyfile
    • BA honeynet
    • CSteganography
    • DData masking
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) A honeyfile

    • AA honeyfile is a decoy file whose only purpose is to alert defenders when someone accesses it.
    • BA honeynet is a network of decoy systems, not a single file.
    • CSteganography hides data inside other content; it isn't a decoy to detect access.
    • DMasking hides parts of real data values; it doesn't create decoys.
  3. Question 3 · Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations

    Malicious code is attached to a spreadsheet and runs only when a user opens the file, then copies itself into other documents. Which malware type is this?

    • AA virus
    • BA worm
    • CSpyware
    • DBloatware
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) A virus

    • AA virus attaches to files and spreads when users run or share the infected files.
    • BA worm spreads across networks without needing a user to open anything.
    • CSpyware gathers information; self-copying into documents isn't its defining behavior.
    • DBloatware is unwanted preinstalled software, not self-replicating code.
  4. Question 4 · Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations

    Malware on a server modifies the kernel so its own files, processes and network connections don't appear in standard system tools. Which malware type is this?

    • AA rootkit
    • BA worm
    • CAdware
    • DA keylogger
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) A rootkit

    • AA rootkit hides its presence and maintains privileged access, often by modifying the kernel or system tools.
    • BA worm spreads itself across networks; self-hiding at kernel level is the defining trait of a rootkit.
    • CAdware displays unwanted advertising; it doesn't typically hide at kernel level.
    • DA keylogger records keystrokes; hiding from system tools isn't its defining feature.
  5. Question 5 · Threats, Vulnerabilities, and Mitigations

    An attacker within Bluetooth range connects to a vulnerable phone without the owner's knowledge and downloads its contacts and messages. Which attack is this?

    • ABluesnarfing
    • BBluejacking
    • CAn evil twin
    • DRFID cloning
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Bluesnarfing

    • ABluesnarfing is unauthorized access to data on a device over a Bluetooth connection.
    • BBluejacking sends unsolicited messages to nearby Bluetooth devices; it doesn't steal data.
    • CAn evil twin is a rogue Wi-Fi access point imitating a legitimate one.
    • DRFID cloning copies badge identifiers; it doesn't access phone data over Bluetooth.
  6. Question 6 · Security Architecture

    Administrators must never RDP or SSH to production servers directly from their workstations. Instead they connect to one hardened, heavily monitored host, and only that host can reach the servers. What is this design pattern?

    • AA jump box / bastion host
    • BAn air gap
    • CA honeypot
    • DA content delivery network
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) A jump box / bastion host

    • AA jump box is a single hardened, logged entry point placed between admin workstations and sensitive systems, shrinking the attack surface and concentrating monitoring on one chokepoint.
    • BAn air gap means no network connection at all between environments; here there is a controlled path via the bastion.
    • CA honeypot is a decoy meant to attract and study attackers, not a sanctioned admin access path.
    • DA CDN caches and distributes content to users; it is not an administrative access control.
  7. Question 7 · Security Architecture

    A data center team is evaluating software-defined networking (SDN). Which statement best describes how SDN differs from a traditional network architecture?

    • AControl-plane decisions move off individual devices to a centralized controller
    • BEach switch keeps making its own forwarding decisions using locally configured VLANs
    • CManagement, control, and data planes are combined inside every switch for speed
    • DPhysical switches and routers are replaced by virtual machines that forward traffic
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Control-plane decisions move off individual devices to a centralized controller

    SDN separates (abstracts) the control plane from the data-plane devices. A central controller defines policy and programs the forwarding devices, which can be physical or virtual.

    • ACorrect. SDN abstracts the management and control planes away from the forwarding devices. A centralized controller sets policy and programs the data-plane devices, which handle the actual packet forwarding.
    • BIncorrect. This is how a traditional, device-by-device network works. SDN centralizes configuration and policy instead of relying on each device's local decisions.
    • CIncorrect. This is the opposite of SDN. SDN works because the planes are no longer bound to the individual devices.
    • DIncorrect. Physical switches, routers, and other hardware still have a place in SDN. SDN changes how devices are controlled, not whether hardware exists.
  8. Question 8 · Security Architecture

    A company wants to protect traffic for one specific web application, without encrypting all traffic between the two networks. Which protocol is usually used?

    • ATLS
    • BIPsec tunnel mode
    • CSNMPv1
    • DTelnet
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) TLS

    • ATLS secures individual application sessions, such as HTTPS.
    • BTunnel mode typically protects all traffic between two networks.
    • CSNMPv1 is an unencrypted management protocol.
    • DTelnet sends data in plaintext.
  9. Question 9 · Security Operations

    After an incident is contained, the team investigates which weakness allowed the attacker in, so it can be fixed and similar incidents prevented. What is this activity?

    • ARoot cause analysis
    • BThreat hunting across the network
    • CIdentity proofing
    • DAsset enumeration
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Root cause analysis

    • ARoot cause analysis identifies the underlying reason an incident happened, to prevent recurrence.
    • BThreat hunting proactively searches for undetected threats, not the cause of a known incident.
    • CIdentity proofing verifies who someone is.
    • DEnumeration discovers devices for inventory.
  10. Question 10 · Security Operations

    A company buys and owns the smartphones it issues, and lets employees use them for personal tasks as well as work. Which deployment model is this?

    • ACOPE
    • BBYOD
    • CCYOD
    • DVDI
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) COPE

    • ACorporate-owned, personally enabled: the organization owns and manages the device but allows personal use.
    • BBring your own device means employees use their personally owned devices; here the company owns them.
    • CChoose your own device lets employees pick from approved models, typically for work use; personal use isn't the defining feature.
    • DVDI provides hosted virtual desktops; it isn't a mobile device ownership model.
  11. Question 11 · Security Operations

    A non-credentialed scan of a Windows server reports several missing patches, but the patch management console shows that those updates are installed. The analyst runs the scan again using a dedicated least-privileged scanning account, and most of those findings disappear. What best explains the difference?

    • AThe scanner can sign in and read installed patch levels and local settings, so it reports from evidence instead of inferring from banners
    • BThe scanner switches to exploiting each finding to confirm it, so only vulnerabilities proven exploitable are reported
    • CThe scanner limits itself to ports the account is authorized to use, so fewer services are probed and fewer findings appear
    • DThe scanner sends its traffic encrypted under the account's session, so intrusion prevention no longer distorts the responses
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) The scanner can sign in and read installed patch levels and local settings, so it reports from evidence instead of inferring from banners

    A credentialed scan signs in to the target and reads its actual patch and configuration state, so it is more accurate and produces fewer false positives than a non-credentialed scan that guesses from outside. It needs a protected account with only the access it requires.

    • ACorrect. With credentials, the scanner inspects the host from the inside (installed updates, package versions, registry and configuration). This removes the guesswork of version-banner matching that causes false positives in non-credentialed scans.
    • BIncorrect. Confirming findings by exploiting them is penetration testing. A credentialed vulnerability scan does not exploit anything; it reads system state using the account it was given.
    • CIncorrect. Credentials do not narrow the set of ports that are probed. A credentialed scan usually examines more of the system, not less. The findings dropped because they were false positives, not because less was scanned.
    • DIncorrect. Credentials let the scanner authenticate and inspect the host. They do not exist to hide scan traffic from an IPS, and that would not explain why already-installed patches were being reported as missing.
  12. Question 12 · Security Operations

    A SOC wants to proactively look for signs of an undetected intruder in the environment, forming hypotheses and searching telemetry rather than waiting for alerts. What is this activity?

    • AThreat hunting
    • BPenetration testing
    • CPatch management
    • DA tabletop exercise
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Threat hunting

    • AThreat hunting is a proactive, hypothesis-driven search through logs and endpoint data for adversary activity that automated detections may have missed, often guided by threat intelligence and TTPs.
    • BPen testing simulates an attacker to find weaknesses; hunting looks for an attacker already present.
    • CPatching remediates vulnerabilities; it isn't a search for intruders.
    • DA tabletop is a discussion-based rehearsal of a scenario, not an active search of live data.
  13. Question 13 · Security Program Management and Oversight

    Before choosing a new cloud provider, a company checks its financial stability, security certifications, breach history and references. What is this process?

    • ADue diligence
    • BVendor monitoring
    • CRisk acceptance
    • DLegal hold
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Due diligence

    • ADue diligence investigates a vendor's suitability and risks before entering an agreement.
    • BMonitoring happens after the vendor is engaged.
    • CAcceptance tolerates a known risk without action.
    • DA legal hold preserves data for litigation.
  14. Question 14 · Security Program Management and Oversight

    A team scores each risk by discussing whether its likelihood is Low/Medium/High and its impact is Minor/Moderate/Severe, without assigning dollar figures. Which risk analysis method is this?

    • AQualitative risk analysis
    • BQuantitative risk analysis
    • CA penetration test
    • DA business impact analysis
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Qualitative risk analysis

    • AQualitative analysis uses relative ratings (categories, heat maps) for likelihood and impact; quantitative analysis assigns numeric values like SLE, ARO, and ALE.
    • BQuantitative analysis would compute monetary loss expectancies, which this scenario explicitly avoids.
    • CA pen test finds exploitable weaknesses; it isn't a risk-scoring method.
    • DA BIA identifies critical processes and recovery objectives; it isn't the likelihood/impact scoring described.
  15. Question 15 · Security Program Management and Oversight

    Security guidance for remote employees recommends using a VPN on public Wi-Fi and keeping work screens out of view in shared spaces. Which awareness topic does this cover?

    • AHybrid and remote work
    • BData retention
    • CChange management
    • DVendor management
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Hybrid and remote work

    • AGuidance for remote and hybrid work addresses risks of working outside the office, such as untrusted networks and onlookers.
    • BData retention concerns how long records are kept.
    • CChange management governs modifications to systems.
    • DVendor management concerns third-party suppliers.

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Original questions written from the official exam guide. Not affiliated with CompTIA; never copied from the real exam.