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Professional Cloud Architect practice questions with answers

15 free practice questions for the Google Cloud Professional Cloud Architect (Professional Cloud Architect) exam, spread across the exam's domains. Try each one, then open the answer to see why every option is right or wrong.

  1. Question 1 · Designing and planning a cloud solution architecture

    A company stores Parquet files in Cloud Storage. Analysts must query them from BigQuery, but each analyst may see only certain rows and columns. The data must stay in Cloud Storage, and analysts must not be granted direct access to the bucket. Which approach meets these requirements?

    • ADefine BigLake tables over the files using a BigQuery connection, and apply row-level and column-level access policies
    • BDefine standard BigQuery external tables over the files and grant analysts read access on the bucket
    • CLoad the files into native BigQuery tables on a schedule and apply row-level access policies to them
    • DSplit the files into separate buckets for each analyst group and control access with Cloud Storage IAM
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Define BigLake tables over the files using a BigQuery connection, and apply row-level and column-level access policies

    BigLake tables let BigQuery query open-format files in Cloud Storage in place. A connection with access delegation reads the data, so users don't need bucket permissions, and row-level and column-level security are enforced on the table.

    • ACorrect. BigLake tables query data in place in Cloud Storage. Access delegation means the connection's service account reads the files, so users need access only to the table. Row-level and column-level security, and dynamic data masking, are enforced on the table.
    • BIncorrect. Standard external tables query the data in place but don't provide access delegation, so users need permissions on the underlying files. That breaks the no-bucket-access requirement, and they don't offer the fine-grained governance that BigLake tables provide.
    • CIncorrect. Native tables support fine-grained security, but loading copies the data into BigQuery storage. That breaks the requirement to keep the data only in Cloud Storage.
    • DIncorrect. Cloud Storage IAM controls access to buckets or objects, not to individual rows or columns. Analysts would also be given direct bucket access, which the requirements prohibit.
  2. Question 2 · Designing and planning a cloud solution architecture

    A mobile app needs a database with real-time synchronization to clients, offline support on devices, and a flexible document data model. Which Google Cloud service fits best?

    • AFirestore
    • BCloud SQL
    • CBigQuery
    • DCloud Bigtable
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Firestore

    • AFirestore is a serverless document database with real-time listeners, on-device offline persistence and sync, and client SDKs — designed for mobile and web app back ends.
    • BCloud SQL is a managed relational database with no built-in client real-time sync or offline mode for mobile apps.
    • CBigQuery is an analytics warehouse for large-scale SQL queries, not an operational app database with client sync.
    • DBigtable is a wide-column store for high-throughput analytical/operational workloads; it has no client SDK real-time sync or offline support.
  3. Question 3 · Designing and planning a cloud solution architecture

    Thousands of IoT devices send telemetry events continuously. Each event must be enriched and transformed as it arrives, and analysts must be able to query the results with SQL within seconds of ingestion. Which pipeline design best meets these requirements?

    • APublish events to Pub/Sub, transform them in a streaming Dataflow pipeline, and write to BigQuery with the Storage Write API
    • BHave devices upload files to Cloud Storage, and run an hourly Dataproc batch job that transforms them and loads them into BigQuery
    • CPublish events to Pub/Sub with a Cloud Storage subscription, and load the resulting files into BigQuery with a daily scheduled load job
    • DPublish events to Pub/Sub, transform them in a streaming Dataflow pipeline, and write the results to Memorystore for Redis for analysis
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Publish events to Pub/Sub, transform them in a streaming Dataflow pipeline, and write to BigQuery with the Storage Write API

    For real-time transformation with SQL analytics within seconds, use Pub/Sub for ingestion, streaming Dataflow for transformation, and BigQuery (Storage Write API) for analysis. Batch loads and non-SQL stores can't meet the latency or query requirement.

    • ACorrect. Pub/Sub absorbs high-volume event ingestion, and Dataflow transforms the stream continuously. Records written to BigQuery with the Storage Write API can be queried with SQL as soon as they're written.
    • BIncorrect. Hourly batch processing adds up to an hour of delay, so data isn't queryable within seconds.
    • CIncorrect. A Cloud Storage subscription only writes raw messages to files, so there's no transformation step, and daily loads are far too slow for queries within seconds.
    • DIncorrect. Memorystore for Redis is a fast in-memory key-value store, but it isn't an analytical warehouse and doesn't support ad hoc SQL analysis.
  4. Question 4 · Managing and provisioning a solution infrastructure

    A company is creating a Cloud Router to manage BGP sessions for HA VPN tunnels and Dedicated Interconnect VLAN attachments to its on-premises data center. Which local ASN must the Cloud Router be configured with?

    • AA private ASN as defined in RFC 6996, such as one from the 64512–65534 range
    • BGoogle's public ASN 16550, which Google reserves for Cloud Router
    • CThe public ASN that the company has registered with its regional internet registry
    • DGoogle's primary public ASN 15169, which identifies Google's network
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) A private ASN as defined in RFC 6996, such as one from the 64512–65534 range

    For HA VPN, Dedicated Interconnect, and Router appliance, Cloud Router must use a private ASN as defined in RFC 6996. Only Partner Interconnect requires Google's public ASN 16550.

    • ACorrect. A Cloud Router that manages BGP sessions for Dedicated Interconnect VLAN attachments, HA VPN tunnels, or Router appliances must use a private ASN (16-bit 64512–65534 or 32-bit 4200000000–4294967294).
    • BIncorrect. ASN 16550 is required only for Cloud Routers that manage Partner Interconnect VLAN attachments, and such a router can manage only Partner Interconnect sessions. It doesn't apply to HA VPN or Dedicated Interconnect.
    • CIncorrect. The company's registered public ASN can identify its on-premises peer, but the Cloud Router's own local ASN for these connection types must be private.
    • DIncorrect. You don't configure Cloud Router with Google's backbone ASN. HA VPN and Dedicated Interconnect require a private ASN that you choose.
  5. Question 5 · Managing and provisioning a solution infrastructure

    A company runs Compute Engine VMs in a single region. For security reasons the VMs have no external IP addresses. The VMs need to download OS patches from third-party package repositories on the public internet, and they must not accept connections that start from the internet. What should you configure?

    • AA Cloud NAT gateway on a Cloud Router in the VPC network's region
    • BPrivate Google Access enabled on the subnet that hosts the VMs
    • CAn egress firewall rule allowing TCP 80 and 443 to 0.0.0.0/0
    • DAn external Application Load Balancer in front of the VMs
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) A Cloud NAT gateway on a Cloud Router in the VPC network's region

    Cloud NAT is the managed, regional service that lets VMs without external IPs reach the internet for outbound traffic while blocking unsolicited inbound connections. Private Google Access only reaches Google APIs.

    • ACloud NAT gives source NAT to VMs without external IPs so they can start outbound connections to the internet. It only lets in responses to connections the VMs started, never unsolicited inbound connections.
    • BPrivate Google Access lets VMs without external IPs reach Google APIs and services. It does not give them a path to third-party repositories on the public internet.
    • CFirewall rules only allow or deny traffic; they do not translate addresses. A VM with no external IP still needs NAT to reach the internet, and egress is already allowed by the implied rule.
    • DAn external load balancer spreads incoming client traffic across backends. It does not give backend VMs a way to start outbound connections to the internet.
  6. Question 6 · Managing and provisioning a solution infrastructure

    A VPC network is connected to an on-premises data center over Cloud Interconnect. VMs in the VPC must resolve names in the on-premises corp.example.com domain, and on-premises hosts must resolve names for Google Cloud resources that are not published publicly. Which Cloud DNS configuration meets both requirements?

    • AA private zone for the cloud names, a forwarding zone for corp.example.com, and an inbound server policy
    • BA private zone for the cloud names, a peering zone for corp.example.com, and an alternative name server policy
    • CA public zone for the cloud names, a forwarding zone for corp.example.com, and DNSSEC on the public zone
    • DA private zone for the cloud names, a forwarding zone for corp.example.com, and a response policy
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) A private zone for the cloud names, a forwarding zone for corp.example.com, and an inbound server policy

    For hybrid DNS, use private zones for cloud names, a forwarding zone to send on-premises domains to on-premises resolvers, and an inbound server policy so on-premises hosts can query Cloud DNS private zones.

    • AThe private zone serves the cloud names to the VPC. The forwarding zone sends corp.example.com queries to the on-premises name servers. The inbound server policy creates entry points that on-premises resolvers can query to resolve the VPC's private zones.
    • BPeering zones send lookups to another VPC network's name resolution, not to on-premises servers. An alternative name server policy sends every query on-premises, which loses Compute Engine internal DNS, and it still doesn't let on-premises hosts query Cloud DNS.
    • CA public zone would publish internal names on the internet, which breaks the requirement that they not be public. DNSSEC authenticates responses but doesn't provide private hybrid resolution.
    • DThis covers resolution from the VPC to on-premises. Response policies, however, only change answers for clients inside the VPC. They don't give on-premises hosts a way to send queries into Cloud DNS, so an inbound server policy is still needed.
  7. Question 7 · Designing for security and compliance

    Security wants Admin Activity audit logs from every current and future project in the organization collected in one place and kept for seven years for compliance. What should you configure?

    • AAn organization-level sink with includeChildren set, filtered to audit logs and routed to a central log bucket, BigQuery, or Cloud Storage
    • BA log sink in the security team's project with a filter that matches audit log entries from every project in the organization
    • CAn organization-level sink filtered to audit logs and routed to Cloud Storage, leaving the includeChildren option at its default
    • DRaise the retention period of each project's _Required log bucket to seven years and query the buckets from one central project
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) An organization-level sink with includeChildren set, filtered to audit logs and routed to a central log bucket, BigQuery, or Cloud Storage

    An organization-level aggregated sink with includeChildren collects audit logs from every current and future project. Routing it to a central log bucket, BigQuery, or Cloud Storage with long retention meets the multi-year compliance requirement.

    • ACorrect. An aggregated sink at the organization with includeChildren routes matching logs from all child folders and projects, including projects created later. The central destination can be set to keep logs for years.
    • BIncorrect. A project-level sink only sees log entries that originate in its own project. It can't collect logs from other projects, however broad its filter is.
    • CIncorrect. includeChildren defaults to false, so the sink would route only logs owned by the organization resource itself, not logs from its folders and projects.
    • DIncorrect. The retention period of the _Required bucket can't be changed. Per-project buckets also don't automatically cover new projects in one central store.
  8. Question 8 · Designing for security and compliance

    A compliance team needs two things in Cloud Audit Logs for a project that uses Cloud Storage. First, a record of who created or deleted buckets, captured with no configuration. Second, a record of every object read, which they accept will mean extra volume and cost. Which audit log types meet these two needs, respectively?

    • AAdmin Activity logs, which are always written; Data Access logs, which must be explicitly enabled
    • BData Access logs, which are always written; Admin Activity logs, which must be explicitly enabled
    • CSystem Event logs, which are always written; Data Access logs, which must be explicitly enabled
    • DAdmin Activity logs, which are always written; Policy Denied logs, which must be explicitly enabled
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Admin Activity logs, which are always written; Data Access logs, which must be explicitly enabled

    Admin Activity audit logs are always written and capture resource configuration changes. Data Access audit logs capture data reads and must be explicitly enabled for most services (BigQuery is the exception) because they can be high-volume and billable.

    • AAdmin Activity audit logs record configuration and metadata changes, such as creating or deleting a bucket. They are always written and can't be disabled. Data Access audit logs record reads of user data. Except for BigQuery they are off by default because they can be very high-volume, so they must be enabled explicitly.
    • BThis swaps the two types. Admin Activity logs are always on. Data Access logs are opt-in for most services, including Cloud Storage.
    • CSystem Event audit logs record Google Cloud system actions that change resource configuration. They don't record user-initiated actions like a person creating or deleting a bucket.
    • DPolicy Denied logs record access refused because of a security policy violation, not successful object reads. Capturing reads requires Data Access logs.
  9. Question 9 · Designing for security and compliance

    An organization must prevent data in a sensitive BigQuery dataset from being exfiltrated even by a user with legitimate query access outside approved networks. Which control helps?

    • AVPC Service Controls establishing a service perimeter around the sensitive resources
    • BIAM roles alone with no perimeter control
    • CMaking the dataset public
    • DDisabling all logging on the dataset
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) VPC Service Controls establishing a service perimeter around the sensitive resources

    • AVPC Service Controls create a boundary that blocks data movement to unauthorized networks or projects, even for users with valid IAM permissions.
    • BIAM controls who can query but does not by itself stop data from being copied outside an approved network boundary.
    • CThat is the opposite of the required protection.
    • DRemoving logs reduces detection ability and does not prevent exfiltration.
  10. Question 10 · Analyzing and optimizing technical and business processes

    A team deploys a service to Cloud Run through a Cloud Build pipeline. After several recent releases, p95 latency went up, and users reported it only days later. The team wants latency regressions caught before a release receives production traffic. What should the architect recommend?

    • AAdd a pipeline stage that load-tests the new revision in a staging environment and fails the build if p95 latency exceeds the established baseline
    • BCreate a Cloud Monitoring alerting policy on production p95 latency that notifies the on-call engineer when the SLO threshold is breached
    • CRaise the required unit-test coverage in the Cloud Build pipeline to 90% and block merges that reduce the coverage percentage
    • DEnable Cloud Profiler on the production service so engineers can identify the code paths responsible for latency after each release
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Add a pipeline stage that load-tests the new revision in a staging environment and fails the build if p95 latency exceeds the established baseline

    Add an automated load test with a latency threshold to the CI/CD pipeline so performance regressions fail the build before release. Production alerting and profiling find problems only after users are affected, and unit-test coverage doesn't measure performance.

    • ACorrect. An automated performance gate in the pipeline compares each release with a baseline and stops regressions before production. This is the shift-left testing approach the Well-Architected Framework recommends for preventing regressions.
    • BIncorrect. Production alerting is useful, but it fires only after the slower release is already serving users. The requirement is to catch the regression before production traffic.
    • CIncorrect. Unit-test coverage measures how much code functional tests exercise. It doesn't measure latency under load, so performance regressions can still pass.
    • DIncorrect. Profiler helps find the cause of a slowdown, but it works on production after the release is live. It doesn't stop a regressed release from reaching users.
  11. Question 11 · Analyzing and optimizing technical and business processes

    A company builds container images with Cloud Build and deploys them to GKE. Security reviews keep finding vulnerable OS packages and dependencies in images that are already running in production. The company wants these problems caught during development so a vulnerable image never reaches its registry. What should the architect recommend?

    • AAdd an On-Demand Scanning step to the Cloud Build pipeline that fails the build when vulnerabilities of chosen severities are found
    • BReview Security Command Center findings for the GKE clusters each week and patch any vulnerable workloads that turn up
    • CRun Web Security Scanner against the production application's public endpoints after each release goes live
    • DPut Google Cloud Armor WAF policies in front of the GKE ingress to block exploit attempts against vulnerable services
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Add an On-Demand Scanning step to the Cloud Build pipeline that fails the build when vulnerabilities of chosen severities are found

    Shift-left security means testing during CI. Running On-Demand Scanning in Cloud Build and failing the build on chosen severities stops vulnerable images before they're pushed. The other options detect or reduce risk only after deployment.

    • ACorrect. This shifts security testing left. On-Demand Scanning runs inside the CI build, and when it finds vulnerabilities at the specified severities, the build step fails and Cloud Build doesn't push the image to Artifact Registry.
    • BIncorrect. This only finds problems after the images are deployed and running, which is exactly the late detection the company wants to avoid.
    • CIncorrect. Web Security Scanner checks running web applications for issues such as XSS. It runs after release and doesn't inspect image OS packages or dependencies during the build.
    • DIncorrect. Cloud Armor gives runtime protection at the edge. It can reduce exposure, but it doesn't find or stop vulnerable dependencies during development.
  12. Question 12 · Managing implementation of cloud architecture

    A release combines an application change with a non-trivial relational schema change on Cloud SQL. For a day or two after release, the team must be able to roll the application back to the previous version without losing data or taking downtime. Which migration approach should be used?

    • AAdd the new columns and tables additively, release code that works with both schemas, and drop the old columns in a later release
    • BRun one migration in the release that renames and drops the old columns, and restore from a backup if a rollback is needed
    • CApply the change during a maintenance window and keep a tested down-migration script ready to revert the schema if needed
    • DClone the Cloud SQL instance, migrate the clone, and point the new app at it; to roll back, point the old app at the original
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Add the new columns and tables additively, release code that works with both schemas, and drop the old columns in a later release

    To keep app rollback safe across a schema change, keep the schema backward compatible with both versions. Make additive changes first, deploy code that handles both, and drop the old elements only in a later release.

    • ACorrect. This is expand/contract (parallel change). Both the old and new app versions work with the expanded schema, so rolling the app back during the bake period is just a redeploy. The destructive cleanup happens only after the new version is trusted, which follows Google's advice to separate schema changes from code changes and remove the old schema after full rollout.
    • BIncorrect. Once the old columns are dropped, the previous app version can't run against the database. Restoring a backup to get it back means downtime, and every write made since the backup is lost.
    • CIncorrect. A down-migration can't bring back data in columns that were dropped. Rows written in the new shape during the bake period would need lossy conversion. Running the script also takes another maintenance window, so the no-downtime requirement fails.
    • DIncorrect. After cutover, new writes go only to the clone, and the original falls further behind. Rolling back to the original after a day or two would lose all data written in that time.
  13. Question 13 · Managing implementation of cloud architecture

    An engineer switches several times a day between a dev project, which uses one user account, and a prod project, which uses a different account. They want to switch both the account and the project in one step, so that they don't accidentally run a command against prod with the wrong identity. What should they do?

    • ACreate a named gcloud configuration for each environment and switch between them with gcloud config configurations activate
    • BRun gcloud config set project with the target project ID at the start of each work session
    • CSet the CLOUDSDK_CORE_PROJECT environment variable in the shell profile to the project in use
    • DRun gcloud auth application-default login with the matching account before working in each project
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Create a named gcloud configuration for each environment and switch between them with gcloud config configurations activate

    Named gcloud configurations group the account, project, and other properties together. Activating a configuration switches all of them in one step, which lowers the risk of running a command in the wrong environment.

    • AA named configuration stores properties such as the account, project, and default zone together. Activating a configuration switches all of them at once.
    • BThis changes only the project property in the current configuration. The active account stays the same, so the engineer could still use the wrong identity.
    • CThis overrides only the project, and the value stays fixed until the engineer edits the profile. It does not switch the account and does not make frequent switching easier.
    • DApplication Default Credentials are used by client libraries and applications. They do not change the account or project that gcloud commands use.
  14. Question 14 · Ensuring solution and operations excellence

    On GKE, a container starts but needs 30 seconds to warm its cache before handling requests. Which probe prevents traffic from reaching it too early?

    • AA readiness probe
    • BA liveness probe
    • CA node selector on the pod spec
    • DA ConfigMap
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) A readiness probe

    • AThe pod receives traffic only after the readiness probe succeeds.
    • BA liveness probe restarts unhealthy containers; it doesn't hold back traffic during warm-up.
    • CNode selectors choose where pods run.
    • DConfigMaps hold configuration data.
  15. Question 15 · Ensuring solution and operations excellence

    A team runs a customer-facing API on Cloud Run and ships releases through Cloud Deploy. A recent faulty build reached every user before anyone noticed. For future releases, the team wants each new revision to first handle real production requests from a small fraction of users, with automated checks on error rate and latency before any more traffic shifts to it. What should the architect recommend?

    • AConfigure a canary strategy in the delivery pipeline with percentage phases such as 10 and 50, and enable verification for each phase
    • BDeploy each revision with a revision tag and no traffic, run automated tests against the tag URL, then shift 100% of traffic
    • CUse the standard deployment strategy with a verify job after the rollout completes, and roll back if verification fails
    • DDeploy the new version as a separate Cloud Run service in a staging project and promote it after synthetic load tests pass
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Configure a canary strategy in the delivery pipeline with percentage phases such as 10 and 50, and enable verification for each phase

    A canary strategy sends only a set percentage of real production traffic to the new revision in each phase, with verification gating each step. The other options either expose all users before checks run or never test the new revision on real traffic.

    • AWith a Cloud Deploy canary strategy, the new Cloud Run revision gets a set percentage of traffic in each phase while the old revision serves the rest. A verify step can run automated metric checks before the next phase starts. A failed check stops the progression, and the release can be rolled back while most users are still on the old revision.
    • BA tagged revision with no traffic is useful for pre-release testing, but it gets no real production requests. The cutover then moves every user at once, so the release never serves a small share of real users first.
    • CIn a standard strategy, verification runs only after the new version is serving all traffic. Every user is exposed before the checks run, which is the problem the team wants to prevent.
    • DStaging tests with synthetic traffic are useful, but they don't send any share of real production requests to the new revision, so production-only regressions can still reach all users at once.

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Original questions written from the official exam guide. Not affiliated with Google Cloud; never copied from the real exam.