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SY0-701 · 28% of the exam

Security Operations practice questions

10 free Security Operations questions for the CompTIA Security+ (SY0-701) exam, each with the correct answer and an explanation for every option.

What this domain covers

The largest domain: running security day to day, from hardening and monitoring to identity management and incident response.

Exam weight
28%
On a real exam
≈ 25 questions
In our bank
162 questions

Topics that come up most

  • Hardening and secure baselines
  • Vulnerability management lifecycle
  • Monitoring, SIEM and alerting
  • Identity and access management
  • Incident response and digital forensics

How to study it

Learn the incident-response phases in order; many questions describe an action and ask which phase it belongs to.

Sample Security Operations questions

Try each one before opening the answer. Original questions written to the official exam objectives.

  1. Question 1

    A mobile banking app is configured to use certificate pinning when it connects to the bank's API servers. What does pinning accomplish?

    • AThe app accepts only a server certificate or public key that matches a value built into the app, even if another trusted CA issues a valid certificate
    • BThe server tells the client to connect only over HTTPS for a set period, which stops attackers from downgrading the session to plain HTTP
    • CThe server attaches a recent, CA-signed revocation status response to the TLS handshake, so the client doesn't have to contact the CA itself
    • DEvery certificate the CA issues is recorded in public, append-only logs that domain owners can monitor to spot certificates they didn't request
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) The app accepts only a server certificate or public key that matches a value built into the app, even if another trusted CA issues a valid certificate

    Certificate pinning makes a client trust only specific certificates or public keys, so a fraudulent certificate is rejected even if a trusted CA issued it. HSTS, OCSP stapling and Certificate Transparency are related TLS protections that don't restrict which certificate the client accepts.

    • APinning limits trust to specific certificates or keys and rejects all others. An on-path attacker with a certificate from a compromised or rogue CA is blocked. The tradeoff is that the app must be updated when the pinned certificate rotates, which is why Microsoft advises against static pinning of publicly trusted certificates.
    • BThis describes HTTP Strict Transport Security (HSTS). HSTS forces HTTPS but doesn't limit which CA-issued certificate the client will accept.
    • CThis describes OCSP stapling. It speeds up revocation checking, but a mis-issued certificate that hasn't been revoked would still be accepted.
    • DThis describes Certificate Transparency. It helps detect mis-issued certificates after the fact but doesn't stop a client from accepting one during a connection.
  2. Question 2

    During a secure SDLC, which pair of testing techniques respectively analyzes source code without running it and tests the running application from the outside?

    • AStatic application security testing (SAST) and dynamic application security testing (DAST)
    • BPenetration testing and tabletop exercises
    • CVulnerability scanning and patch management
    • DInput validation and output encoding
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Static application security testing (SAST) and dynamic application security testing (DAST)

    • ASAST inspects source/bytecode for insecure patterns early in development; DAST exercises the deployed app (fuzzing inputs, probing endpoints) to find runtime and configuration flaws. They are complementary.
    • BTabletop exercises are discussion-based continuity drills, not code analysis.
    • CThose are infrastructure operations, not the SAST/DAST pair for application code.
    • DThose are secure-coding defenses, not the two analysis/testing methodologies asked for.
  3. Question 3

    Responders must acquire a forensic copy of a suspect laptop's hard drive. The copy must be admissible in court, and they must be able to prove it was not altered. Which approach BEST meets both requirements?

    • AImage the drive through a write blocker, hash both the source and the image, and log every handoff of the evidence
    • BBoot the laptop from its own OS, copy the user folders to clean media, and hash the copied files afterward
    • CImage the drive through a write blocker, log every handoff, and skip hashing because the blocker already proves integrity
    • DImage the drive through a write blocker, hash both the source and the image, and keep the drive in an unlogged shared locker
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Image the drive through a write blocker, hash both the source and the image, and log every handoff of the evidence

    A forensically sound acquisition needs all three: write blocking to protect the original, hashes of the source and the image to prove integrity, and a documented chain of custody for admissibility. Each distractor leaves one of these out.

    • AThe write blocker prevents changes to the original. Matching hashes of the source and the image prove the copy is exact and unchanged. A chain-of-custody log records every handler and transfer, which supports admissibility.
    • BBooting the suspect OS changes timestamps, logs and other data. Copying folders also misses deleted files, slack space and unallocated space. Hashing the files afterward only proves the copies have not changed since then, not that the original was preserved.
    • CA write blocker protects the source during acquisition, but it produces no verifiable proof that the image matches the original. Without hashes of both, the image cannot be shown to be bit-for-bit identical or unchanged later.
    • DAcquisition and integrity checks are sound, but with no record of who handled or accessed the evidence, chain of custody is broken and admissibility can be challenged.
  4. Question 4

    An employee tries to copy a file containing customer card numbers to a USB drive, and the endpoint agent blocks the copy and alerts security. Which control acted?

    • AEndpoint DLP
    • BA host-based firewall
    • CFile integrity monitoring
    • DFull-disk encryption
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Endpoint DLP

    • AEndpoint data loss prevention detects sensitive content and blocks unauthorized transfers.
    • BA host firewall controls network traffic, not USB file copies.
    • CFIM detects changes to protected files, not data leaving.
    • DFDE protects data at rest, not copying to USB.
  5. Question 5

    Staff from a partner company sign in to your project portal using their own company's identity provider, and your portal trusts the assertions it issues. What is this arrangement called?

    • AFederation
    • BIdentity proofing
    • CRole-based access control
    • DPassword vaulting
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Federation

    • AFederation establishes trust between organizations so one accepts identities authenticated by the other.
    • BIdentity proofing verifies a person's identity before credentials are issued.
    • CRBAC assigns permissions by job role; it doesn't describe cross-organization sign-in.
    • DPassword vaulting stores privileged credentials securely; it isn't a trust arrangement.
  6. Question 6

    A monitoring tool collects data from servers using existing remote protocols, without installing any software on them. What type of monitoring is this?

    • AAgentless
    • BAgent-based
    • CInline
    • DAir-gapped
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Agentless

    • AAgentless monitoring queries systems remotely, avoiding software installation on each host.
    • BAgent-based monitoring requires software installed on each monitored host.
    • CInline describes a device placed in the traffic path, such as an IPS; it isn't a collection method for servers.
    • DAir-gapped systems have no network connection, so they can't be monitored remotely at all.
  7. Question 7

    A company wants enterprise Wi-Fi where each user authenticates with their own domain credentials against a central server, rather than everyone sharing one pre-shared key. Which combination provides this?

    • AWPA2/WPA3-Enterprise with 802.1X/EAP and a RADIUS server
    • BWPA2-Personal with a strong shared passphrase
    • CAn open network with a captive portal only
    • DWEP with MAC filtering
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) WPA2/WPA3-Enterprise with 802.1X/EAP and a RADIUS server

    • AEnterprise mode uses 802.1X to pass EAP authentication to a RADIUS server (often backed by the directory), so each user has unique credentials, per-session keys, and can be individually revoked.
    • BPersonal mode uses one PSK for everyone — no per-user identity, and rotating it means reconfiguring every device.
    • CA captive portal doesn't encrypt the air link or provide 802.1X per-user key material.
    • DWEP is broken and MAC filtering is trivially bypassed by spoofing.
  8. Question 8

    Network engineers manage switches and routers over Telnet. An audit finding states that anyone capturing traffic on the management VLAN can read administrator credentials and commands. Which change BEST remediates the finding and still allows command-line management?

    • AReplace Telnet with SSH so the logon and the entire session are encrypted
    • BMove Telnet from TCP port 23 to a nonstandard high port on each device
    • CReplace Telnet with SNMPv2c using a unique community string per device
    • DKeep Telnet but enforce longer, more complex administrator passwords
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Replace Telnet with SSH so the logon and the entire session are encrypted

    The finding is about plaintext exposure, so the fix has to encrypt the management session. SSH replaces Telnet with an encrypted channel, while port changes, SNMPv2c, and stronger passwords leave the traffic readable.

    • ACorrect. Telnet sends everything, including credentials, as unencrypted plaintext (TCP port 23). SSH (TCP port 22) provides an encrypted, authenticated channel for the same command-line administration, which directly fixes the sniffing risk.
    • BIncorrect. Changing the port only hides the service from casual scans. The traffic is still plaintext, so a packet capture still shows the credentials.
    • CIncorrect. SNMPv2c sends community strings in cleartext and is meant for monitoring and polling, not interactive command-line management.
    • DIncorrect. Stronger passwords resist guessing, but Telnet still sends them in plaintext, so anyone sniffing the traffic can capture them.
  9. Question 9

    A developer added JavaScript checks to a web form's fields. During a penetration test, the tester sends malicious field values through an intercepting proxy, and the application processes them. Which remediation best addresses this finding?

    • ARe-validate every submitted field in the application's server-side code
    • BObfuscate and minify the JavaScript validation routines in the page
    • CApply stricter regular expressions to the browser-side field checks
    • DServe the form over HTTPS and disable autocomplete on its fields
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Re-validate every submitted field in the application's server-side code

    Attackers control client-side validation and can bypass it with tools such as intercepting proxies. Input must be validated on the server, which treats browser checks as a usability feature only.

    • ACorrect. An intercepting proxy sends requests after the browser's scripts have run, so client-side checks are bypassed. Validation must be enforced in server code, which the attacker can't skip.
    • BIncorrect. Obfuscation only makes the script harder to read. The attacker still controls the request sent to the server and can bypass the browser checks completely.
    • CIncorrect. Stricter rules still run in the browser. Requests sent through a proxy never pass through them, so the weakness remains.
    • DIncorrect. HTTPS protects data in transit, and disabling autocomplete limits stored values. Neither one checks the content of requests the attacker crafts and sends.
  10. Question 10

    Attackers keep sending a company's users email attachments that contain malicious Office macros. Which control is MOST effective at preventing this malware from running?

    • AEnforce a policy that blocks macros in Office files from the internet, and detonate attachments in a sandbox
    • BConfigure Office to disable all macros with notification so users can decide whether to enable content
    • CAdd frequent external partner domains to the email allow list so their attachments bypass content filtering
    • DRely on signature-based antivirus scanning at the email gateway without adding any further macro restrictions
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Enforce a policy that blocks macros in Office files from the internet, and detonate attachments in a sandbox

    The strongest defense against macro-based email malware combines technical enforcement and analysis: block macros in internet-sourced Office files by policy, and detonate attachments in a sandbox before delivery. Controls that depend on user choice, allow listing, or signatures alone leave gaps.

    • ACorrect. The policy blocks macros in files carrying Mark of the Web, such as email attachments, so users cannot simply click to enable them. Sandbox detonation of attachments before delivery catches malicious payloads before they reach the inbox.
    • BIncorrect. Microsoft rates this setting as only partially protected because the user still makes the final decision. Persuading the user to click 'Enable content' is exactly the social-engineering step these attacks rely on.
    • CIncorrect. Allow listing sender domains removes inspection for those messages. Partner accounts can be compromised or spoofed, so this opens a delivery path rather than closing one.
    • DIncorrect. Signature scanning is useful but often misses new or obfuscated macro malware. Without macro blocking or behavioral detonation, unknown variants can still reach users and run.

Security Operations: FAQs

How much of the SY0-701 exam is Security Operations?

Security Operations is 28% of the SY0-701 exam by the official exam guide's weighting, which on a 90-question form works out to roughly 25 questions. The real exam's exact split varies by form.

What does the Security Operations domain cover?

The largest domain: running security day to day, from hardening and monitoring to identity management and incident response.

How should I study Security Operations for SY0-701?

Learn the incident-response phases in order; many questions describe an action and ask which phase it belongs to.

Where can I practise more Security Operations questions?

This page has 10 free Security Operations questions with answers. CertRidge's SY0-701 question bank has 162 questions in this domain. Every practice exam result breaks your score down by domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Get Security Operations exam-ready

The full SY0-701 bank has 162 Security Operations questions. Timed practice exams match the real exam's length and domain weights, every result shows your score per domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Not affiliated with CompTIA; questions are original and never copied from the real exam.