CISSP · 10% of the exam
Asset Security practice questions
10 free Asset Security questions for the CISSP (Certified Information Systems Security Professional) (CISSP) exam, each with the correct answer and an explanation for every option.
What this domain covers
Protecting information and assets through their life cycle: classification, ownership, handling and retention.
- Exam weight
- 10%
- On a real exam
- ≈ 13 questions
- In our bank
- 64 questions
Topics that come up most
- Data classification and labelling
- Data owners, custodians and processors
- Data states and protection
- Retention and destruction
- Asset inventory
How to study it
Learn the data roles precisely; questions turn on who decides classification versus who implements it.
Sample Asset Security questions
Try each one before opening the answer. Original questions written to the official exam objectives.
Question 1
An organization's classification policy defines two levels: Public (marketing material published on its website) and Restricted (customer financial records). Which handling approach BEST aligns protection with these classification levels?
- ARestricted: encryption, need-to-know access, and access logging. Public: change control and availability protections, with no read restrictions
- BRestricted and Public: the same encryption, need-to-know access, and access logging, so that every data set gets identical protection
- CRestricted: encryption, need-to-know access, and access logging. Public: no specific controls, because the content is already public
- DRestricted and Public: controls chosen by storage location, with stronger controls for cloud-hosted data than for on-premises data
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Restricted: encryption, need-to-know access, and access logging. Public: change control and availability protections, with no read restrictions
Each classification level should map to its own baseline of handling controls, so protection matches sensitivity. Restricted data needs strong confidentiality and auditing controls, and Public data still needs protection for integrity and availability.
- ACorrect. Controls should match each level's sensitivity and impact. Restricted data needs strong confidentiality and accountability controls. Public data is meant to be disclosed, so the main risks are unauthorized changes, such as defacement, and loss of availability.
- BIncorrect. Treating all data the same over-protects low-sensitivity data. It adds unnecessary cost and limits legitimate use of material that is meant to be published.
- CIncorrect. Public data still needs protection for integrity and availability. Unauthorized changes to published material can damage the organization's reputation and mislead customers.
- DIncorrect. Handling requirements come from the data's classification, not from where it is stored. Location can affect how a control is implemented, but it does not set the level of protection required.
Question 2
A newly hired CISO finds that the organization has no reliable hardware or software inventory and makes building one the first priority, ahead of other security projects. Which reason BEST justifies this decision?
- APatching, monitoring, and configuration baselines can only be applied to assets the organization knows it has
- BAssets that are recorded in the inventory no longer need regular authenticated vulnerability scans
- CAn inventory is mainly needed to calculate depreciation and to support software licensing audits
- DAdding an asset to the inventory automatically classifies its data and assigns the data owner
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Patching, monitoring, and configuration baselines can only be applied to assets the organization knows it has
You can't protect what you don't know you have. An accurate inventory sets the scope for patching, monitoring, baselines, and incident response, so it comes before most other controls.
- ACorrect. Nearly every other control depends on the inventory. Systems nobody knows about are never patched, monitored, or hardened, and they also widen the scope of any incident. That makes inventory the foundation of the asset security program.
- BIncorrect. An inventory tells you what exists, and scanning tells you what is weak on those assets. The two work together, and the inventory defines what scanning has to cover. It does not replace scanning.
- CIncorrect. Depreciation and licensing are real uses for an inventory, but they are financial and compliance benefits. They do not explain why the inventory is the foundation of security controls.
- DIncorrect. Data classification and owner assignment are separate governance decisions made by the business. The inventory can record them once they are made, but listing an asset does not make those decisions.
Question 3
Personal data collected for one purpose is later used for a different, unrelated purpose without notice. Which data lifecycle principle is violated?
- APurpose limitation
- BData remanence
- CData sovereignty
- DDefense in depth
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Purpose limitation
- AData should be used only for the purposes stated at collection, unless further use is lawful and disclosed.
- BRemanence concerns residual data after deletion.
- CSovereignty concerns which country's laws apply to data.
- DDefense in depth is a layered security architecture principle.
Question 4
When applying a security control baseline to a specific system, a team removes controls that clearly don't apply (the system has no wireless interface) and adjusts parameters on others to fit the environment. What are these two activities called?
- AScoping (removing non-applicable controls) and tailoring (adjusting the remaining controls to the context)
- BAggregation and inference
- CCertification and accreditation
- DClearing and purging
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Scoping (removing non-applicable controls) and tailoring (adjusting the remaining controls to the context)
- AScoping trims a baseline to what is relevant; tailoring refines the parameters and compensating measures so the baseline fits the actual system and risk.
- BThose are database-confidentiality concerns, not baseline customization.
- CThose are the assessment and authorization steps, performed after controls are selected.
- DThose are media-sanitization methods.
Question 5
A database administrator performs backups and applies technical controls according to the data owner's requirements. Which role is this?
- AData custodian
- BData subject
- CData owner
- DAuditor
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Data custodian
- ACustodians implement and maintain the protections that owners define.
- BData subjects are the people the data describes.
- CThe owner sets requirements and is accountable.
- DAuditors evaluate controls independently.
Question 6
An organization is retiring a rack of servers that contain both magnetic hard drives and SSDs holding confidential data. The servers will be sold intact to a refurbisher, so the drives must remain usable. Which action BEST addresses data remanence before the sale?
- APurge each drive with a media-appropriate method that makes lab recovery infeasible, then verify and record the result
- BDelete all volumes and quick-format every drive so the operating system reports the drives as empty
- CDegauss all of the drives, including the SSDs, with an approved degausser before shipping them out
- DRemove the servers from the asset inventory and transfer ownership records to the refurbisher
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Purge each drive with a media-appropriate method that makes lab recovery infeasible, then verify and record the result
When media will be reused outside the organization, it should be purged with a method suited to the media type (for example, NIST SP 800-88 purge) so data can't be recovered, and the sanitization should be verified and documented. Formatting is not sanitization, and degaussing does not work on SSDs.
- APurge makes target data recovery infeasible even with state-of-the-art laboratory techniques, and the media stays reusable. Verifying and keeping records of the sanitization supports chain of custody and audit.
- BDeleting volumes and quick-formatting only removes file system references. The underlying data stays recoverable, so data remanence is not addressed.
- CDegaussing works only on magnetic media and does not sanitize flash-based SSDs. It also typically leaves magnetic drives unusable, which conflicts with the resale requirement.
- DUpdating inventory and ownership records is an administrative step. It does nothing to remove the data that remains on the drives.
Question 7
A technician deletes all files on a retired laptop drive and runs a quick format before donating the laptop to a charity. Later, a forensic tool recovers customer records from the drive. Which concept does this illustrate, and what should have been done?
- AData remanence; the drive should have been purged or destroyed using an approved sanitization method
- BData over-retention; the records should have been deleted at the end of their retention period
- CData aggregation; the records should have been split into separate lower-sensitivity datasets
- DData downgrading; the records should have been reclassified before the drive was released
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Data remanence; the drive should have been purged or destroyed using an approved sanitization method
Data remanence is residual data left on media after deletion or formatting, and it can still be recovered. Media leaving the organization's control should be sanitized by purging or destruction according to NIST SP 800-88 guidance.
- ADeleting files and doing a quick format remove only references to the data. The data itself stays on the media and can be recovered. Purge techniques (such as degaussing magnetic media or cryptographic erase) or physical destruction make recovery infeasible, as described by NIST SP 800-88.
- BRetention schedules control how long data is kept. The records here were deleted. The problem is that deletion did not make them unrecoverable, so keeping data too long is not the issue.
- CAggregation is when combining pieces of lower-sensitivity data reveals more sensitive information. It does not explain how deleted data was recovered from released media.
- DReclassifying data changes its label and handling requirements. It does nothing to remove residual data from the media before the media leaves the organization's control.
Question 8
Sales staff carry laptops that hold sensitive customer data. The laptops often leave the office and are sometimes lost or stolen. Which control BEST protects the confidentiality of the data stored on a laptop once an attacker has physical possession of it?
- AFull-disk encryption using a TPM combined with a pre-boot PIN
- BMDM enrollment with remote wipe triggered when a loss is reported
- CComplex OS sign-in passwords combined with account lockout policies
- DAn endpoint DLP agent that blocks copying sensitive files to USB drives
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Full-disk encryption using a TPM combined with a pre-boot PIN
Once a device is lost or stolen, only encryption of the data at rest with strong pre-boot authentication keeps the data confidential. Remote wipe, OS passwords and DLP can all be bypassed by an attacker who has physical control of the device.
- AFull-disk encryption keeps the data unreadable if someone runs attack tools against the device or moves the drive to another machine. Adding a pre-boot PIN to the TPM means the device cannot start or unlock without the user's PIN, which is multifactor protection.
- BRemote wipe is a useful extra control, but it only works if the device connects to the network after the loss is reported. An attacker can keep the device offline or remove the drive and read it directly.
- COS authentication protects only the running operating system. If the disk is unencrypted, an attacker can boot other media or move the drive to another machine and read the data without signing in.
- DDLP stops authorized users from moving data through monitored channels. It does not protect data at rest from someone who has physical control of the device and its storage.
Question 9
Removable drives holding sensitive project data are passed between several internal teams and an offsite storage vendor. Which practice MOST directly ensures that every person who handles a drive knows what protection it requires?
- AMarking each drive with its sensitivity level and the handling requirements it carries
- BEncrypting each drive with full-disk encryption before it leaves the originating team
- CRecording each drive's serial number and custodian in the central asset inventory
- DRequiring every handler, including the vendor, to sign a nondisclosure agreement
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Marking each drive with its sensitivity level and the handling requirements it carries
Marking media with its sensitivity level and handling requirements is the control that tells every handler what protection applies. Encryption, inventory records and NDAs support security but don't give that guidance on each drive.
- ACorrect. Visible markings tell anyone who picks up the drive how sensitive it is and how to store, transport and dispose of it, at every stage of its life.
- BIncorrect. Encryption protects confidentiality if a drive is lost, but it doesn't tell a handler how sensitive the drive is or what storage and transport rules apply.
- CIncorrect. Inventory records support tracking and accountability, but the person physically handling the drive can't see them, so they don't tell that person what protection is needed.
- DIncorrect. An NDA creates a legal obligation, but it doesn't tell the handler how sensitive a particular drive is or how to handle it.
Question 10
A company wants protection that stays with documents after they're sent to partners, such as blocking printing or forwarding. Which control fits better than DLP?
- ADigital rights management
- BNetwork firewall rules
- CFull-disk encryption on servers
- DPort security on switches
Show answer and explanation
Answer: A) Digital rights management
- ADRM enforces usage restrictions on the content itself, wherever it goes.
- BFirewalls control traffic, not document use after delivery.
- CFDE protects stored data on the server, not shared documents.
- DPort security limits switch connections.
Asset Security: FAQs
How much of the CISSP exam is Asset Security?
Asset Security is 10% of the CISSP exam by the official exam guide's weighting, which on a 125-question form works out to roughly 13 questions. The real exam's exact split varies by form.
What does the Asset Security domain cover?
Protecting information and assets through their life cycle: classification, ownership, handling and retention.
How should I study Asset Security for CISSP?
Learn the data roles precisely; questions turn on who decides classification versus who implements it.
Where can I practise more Asset Security questions?
This page has 10 free Asset Security questions with answers. CertRidge's CISSP question bank has 64 questions in this domain. Every practice exam result breaks your score down by domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.
Other CISSP domains
- Security and Risk Management16% of the exam
- Security Architecture and Engineering13% of the exam
- Communication and Network Security13% of the exam
- Identity and Access Management (IAM)13% of the exam
- Security Assessment and Testing12% of the exam
- Security Operations13% of the exam
- Software Development Security10% of the exam
Also: 15 free questions across all domains, the CISSP cheat sheet and the study guide.
Get Asset Security exam-ready
The full CISSP bank has 64 Asset Security questions. Timed practice exams match the real exam's length and domain weights, every result shows your score per domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.
Not affiliated with ISC2; questions are original and never copied from the real exam.