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CISSP · 13% of the exam

Security Architecture and Engineering practice questions

10 free Security Architecture and Engineering questions for the CISSP (Certified Information Systems Security Professional) (CISSP) exam, each with the correct answer and an explanation for every option.

What this domain covers

Building security into systems: models, secure design, cryptography and physical security.

Exam weight
13%
On a real exam
≈ 16 questions
In our bank
82 questions

Topics that come up most

  • Security models (Bell-LaPadula, Biba)
  • Secure design principles
  • Cryptography and key management
  • Vulnerabilities in architectures
  • Site and facility security

How to study it

Understand what each security model protects (confidentiality vs integrity) rather than memorising rules alone.

Sample Security Architecture and Engineering questions

Try each one before opening the answer. Original questions written to the official exam objectives.

  1. Question 1

    An architect applies the principle of least privilege to the service accounts and processes in a new application platform. What is the primary security benefit of this design decision?

    • AA compromised account or process can only cause damage within the narrow set of permissions it was granted
    • BNo single individual can complete a sensitive transaction from start to finish without another person
    • CEvery account and process must prove its identity with verified credentials before it can make a request
    • DA component that crashes or loses power falls back to a state that denies access instead of allowing it
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) A compromised account or process can only cause damage within the narrow set of permissions it was granted

    Least privilege gives each account and process only the permissions its task requires. Its main benefit is that any single compromised identity or component can do only limited damage. Separation of duties, authentication and fail-secure design are related but separate principles.

    • ACorrect. Least privilege means granting only the permissions a task actually needs. If an identity or component is compromised, the attacker can do only what it was allowed to do, which limits the blast radius.
    • BIncorrect. This is the benefit of separation of duties, which splits critical tasks among several people. Least privilege limits how much access each identity has; it does not require more than one person per transaction.
    • CIncorrect. This describes authentication. Least privilege is an authorization principle: it decides how much access an identity gets after its identity has been established.
    • DIncorrect. This describes fail-secure (fail-safe defaults) design, which controls how a system behaves when it fails. It is not about limiting the permissions given to accounts and processes.
  2. Question 2

    A security architect is writing the key management policy and requires periodic rotation of key-encryption keys. Which statement BEST describes the security benefit of this rotation?

    • AIt limits how much data and how much time any single version of the key material covers if that version is compromised
    • BIt automatically re-encrypts all previously stored ciphertext under the new key material, removing old exposure
    • CIt removes the need to keep earlier key versions, because older ciphertext no longer depends on them
    • DIt neutralizes data keys that were already wrapped by the old key material, even if those data keys leaked
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) It limits how much data and how much time any single version of the key material covers if that version is compromised

    Periodic key rotation limits the cryptoperiod, which caps how much data and time a compromised key version affects. It does not re-encrypt existing data or make older key versions unnecessary.

    • ARotation bounds the cryptoperiod. New data is protected with new key material, so exposure from a compromised version is limited to what that version protected. This also avoids the risks of extensive key reuse.
    • BRotation changes only the current key material used for new encryption operations. It does not re-encrypt data that is already protected.
    • CEarlier key material must be kept so that ciphertext encrypted under it can still be decrypted. AWS KMS, for example, keeps all prior key material and selects the right version automatically.
    • DRotating the wrapping key does not rotate data keys it previously generated or encrypted. It does not mitigate a compromised data key.
  3. Question 3

    An attacker briefly drops a smart card's supply voltage during a PIN check, causing the chip to skip the comparison. Which attack is this?

    • AFault injection
    • BFrequency analysis
    • CPass the hash
    • DCiphertext-only analysis
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Fault injection

    • AFault injection deliberately induces errors, such as voltage glitches, to bypass security logic.
    • BFrequency analysis studies letter patterns in classical ciphers.
    • CPass the hash reuses captured password hashes.
    • DThat works only from ciphertext, without manipulating hardware.
  4. Question 4

    An application is built from dozens of microservices. The architect needs every service-to-service call to prove the identity of both the calling and the receiving service, and to encrypt the traffic in transit. Which approach meets both requirements?

    • AMutual TLS, with each service presenting its own X.509 certificate
    • BServer-side TLS on each service, with certificates only on the receiving endpoints
    • CPer-service API keys sent in request headers over plain HTTP
    • DNetwork ACLs that allow traffic only between approved service subnets
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Mutual TLS, with each service presenting its own X.509 certificate

    Mutual TLS has both sides of a connection authenticate with certificates and encrypts the session. That makes it the standard way to secure service-to-service traffic in microservice architectures.

    • AMutual TLS requires two-way authentication: both client and server present certificates, and the session is encrypted. This meets both requirements for every call.
    • BOne-way TLS encrypts the traffic and authenticates the server, but the calling service never proves its identity with a certificate. The mutual authentication requirement is not met.
    • CAPI keys give some identification of the caller, but over plain HTTP the keys and data travel unencrypted and can be intercepted. The receiving service is also never authenticated to the caller.
    • DACLs limit which network locations can communicate, but they don't verify service identity cryptographically and they don't encrypt anything.
  5. Question 5

    A company leases several floors in a shared office building. Each floor has an intermediate distribution frame (IDF) closet with access switches and patch panels. Which physical control best prevents unauthorized tampering with this equipment and records who touched it?

    • ABadge-controlled locks that admit only authorized network staff, with access logs reviewed regularly
    • BA CCTV camera that records the closet door, with footage kept according to the retention policy
    • CAn automatic clean-agent fire suppression system installed in each closet
    • DAdministratively disabling all unused switch ports and patch panel jacks
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Badge-controlled locks that admit only authorized network staff, with access logs reviewed regularly

    Wiring closets give direct access to network infrastructure, so the main physical control is restricted entry with logs that are reviewed. CCTV, fire suppression and port disabling complement it but don't prevent physical tampering.

    • ACorrect. Limiting entry to approved staff stops unauthorized people from reaching the equipment, and reviewed access logs record who entered and when. This is the same approach used to protect server rooms: least-privilege physical access that is logged and reviewed.
    • BIncorrect. CCTV is a useful detective control, but it doesn't keep anyone out of an unlocked closet. It also only gives a recording to look at after tampering has happened.
    • CIncorrect. Fire suppression protects equipment from environmental damage and supports availability. It does nothing to stop people from tampering with switches or patch panels.
    • DIncorrect. Disabling unused ports is a good logical hardening step, but it isn't a physical control. Anyone who can get into the closet can still re-patch cables, reach console ports or remove devices.
  6. Question 6

    Which security model is primarily concerned with preventing unauthorized disclosure of information, enforcing 'no read up, no write down'?

    • AThe Bell-LaPadula model
    • BThe Biba model
    • CThe Clark-Wilson model
    • DThe Brewer-Nash model
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) The Bell-LaPadula model

    • ABell-LaPadula is a confidentiality-focused model where a subject cannot read data at a higher classification (no read up) or write data down to a lower classification (no write down).
    • BBiba focuses on integrity ('no write up, no read down'), the inverse concern from Bell-LaPadula's confidentiality focus.
    • CClark-Wilson focuses on integrity through well-formed transactions and separation of duties, not primarily confidentiality classification levels.
    • DBrewer-Nash (Chinese Wall) prevents conflicts of interest by dynamically restricting access based on prior access, a different concern.
  7. Question 7

    An architect is designing a claims-processing system. Its components run in three data centers and exchange data with two partner organizations. Which design activity is MOST important for deciding where authentication, authorization and input validation must be enforced?

    • AIdentifying the trust boundaries between components controlled by different parties
    • BEnabling TLS encryption on every link between the data centers and partners
    • CApplying a uniform patching and hardening baseline across all data centers
    • DForwarding audit logs from all sites and partners to a central SIEM
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Identifying the trust boundaries between components controlled by different parties

    In a system that spans several sites and organizations, defining trust boundaries shows where control changes hands, and therefore where authentication, authorization and input validation are required. Encryption, hardening and logging are useful but do not answer that question.

    • ACorrect. Trust boundaries mark where control changes from one entity to another, such as between sites or between your organization and a partner. Data and requests that cross a boundary are where spoofing, tampering and elevation of privilege are possible, so that is where authentication, authorization and validation must be applied.
    • BIncorrect. TLS protects data in transit, but it does not show which components should trust which. Data received from a partner over TLS can still be malicious and must be authenticated and validated at the boundary.
    • CIncorrect. Consistent hardening reduces host vulnerabilities, but it does not identify where control passes between parties. It therefore cannot tell the architect where to enforce access checks and input validation.
    • DIncorrect. Centralized logging supports detection and accountability after the fact. It does not determine where preventive checks such as authentication and validation must be placed.
  8. Question 8

    An organization is designing a new data center and wants its physical and environmental protections to follow defense-in-depth principles. Which design BEST achieves this?

    • AFenced, lit and camera-monitored perimeter; guarded lobby; badge-plus-biometric mantrap to the server floor; role-based cage access; clean-agent suppression with smoke and leak sensors
    • BNo perimeter fencing or lobby screening, a badge-plus-biometric mantrap at the server room door, CCTV inside the room, and a wet-pipe sprinkler system above the racks
    • CPerimeter fence, guard post and CCTV at the site gate; inside the building any badge holder can reach any room, including the server floor; smoke detectors throughout
    • DCPTED landscaping, exterior lighting and clear sightlines with warning signage, a keyed lock on the server room door, and portable fire extinguishers on each floor
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Fenced, lit and camera-monitored perimeter; guarded lobby; badge-plus-biometric mantrap to the server floor; role-based cage access; clean-agent suppression with smoke and leak sensors

    Defense in depth for a data center means concentric physical layers (perimeter, building, server floor, rack) with stronger and least-privilege controls toward the core, combined with suitable environmental protection such as clean-agent suppression and leak and smoke detection.

    • AThis design applies controls in concentric layers (site, building, floor, rack), enforces least privilege inside the building, prevents tailgating at the sensitive entry, and protects equipment from fire and water.
    • BA strong control at a single point does not provide depth: there are no outer layers to deter or delay intruders, and wet-pipe sprinklers over energized equipment are a poor choice for a server room.
    • CThe outer layer is strong, but there is no interior zoning or least-privilege access, so anyone who passes the gate can reach the servers, and nothing suppresses a detected fire.
    • DCPTED is a useful outer layer, but a keyed lock offers weak, unaudited access control, and portable extinguishers alone are not adequate data center fire protection.
  9. Question 9

    A procurement team is reviewing a product's Common Criteria certification documents. Which statement correctly describes the Protection Profile (PP), the Security Target (ST), and the Evaluation Assurance Level (EAL)?

    • APP: security requirements for a class of products; ST: the scope and security claims for the specific product evaluated; EAL: how rigorously those claims were evaluated
    • BPP: the vendor's security claims for the specific product evaluated; ST: security requirements for a class of products; EAL: how rigorously those claims were evaluated
    • CPP: security requirements for a class of products; ST: the scope and security claims for the specific product evaluated; EAL: how strong the product's security features are
    • DPP: guidance for configuring the product into its evaluated state; ST: the evaluator's report of test results; EAL: the count of vulnerabilities found during testing
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) PP: security requirements for a class of products; ST: the scope and security claims for the specific product evaluated; EAL: how rigorously those claims were evaluated

    Under the Common Criteria, a Protection Profile defines requirements for a product category, a Security Target describes what the specific product claims and was evaluated for, and the EAL reflects evaluation rigor and assurance rather than security strength.

    • ACorrect. A PP is a reusable requirements set for a product category, such as general-purpose operating systems. The ST describes the specific product's editions in scope, its security functionality, and the assurance measures used. The EAL expresses evaluation assurance (depth and rigor), not how strong or feature-rich the product's security is.
    • BIncorrect. This swaps the PP and ST. Products are certified against a Protection Profile that defines requirements for a product category, and the Security Target is the product-specific document describing what was evaluated.
    • CIncorrect. The PP and ST are described correctly, but the EAL measures confidence that the claims were properly evaluated, not the strength of the security functions. A product with a higher EAL doesn't necessarily have stronger or more numerous security features.
    • DIncorrect. Configuration guidance is in the Administrative Guide, and evaluation results are in the Certification or Validation Report. The EAL isn't a vulnerability count; it shows the level of assurance of the evaluation.
  10. Question 10

    An API checks a submitted HMAC tag against the expected value with a byte comparison that returns as soon as it finds a mismatch. An attacker submits many forged tags, measures small differences in response latency, and recovers a valid tag one byte at a time. Which countermeasure MOST directly defeats this attack?

    • AReplace the early-exit check with a comparison whose run time depends only on the tag's length
    • BSwitch from HMAC-SHA256 to HMAC-SHA512 so the tag is longer and harder to guess
    • CAdd a nonce and timestamp to every request so previously captured messages are rejected
    • DRequire TLS on the API so an eavesdropper cannot read the request and response contents
    Show answer and explanation

    Answer: A) Replace the early-exit check with a comparison whose run time depends only on the tag's length

    Measuring response time to recover a secret byte by byte is a timing side-channel attack. The direct fix is a constant-time (fixed-time) comparison, so execution time does not depend on secret data.

    • ACorrect. This is a timing side-channel attack: the attacker exploits leakage from the implementation, not a weakness in the HMAC algorithm. A fixed-time comparison takes the same time whatever the byte values are, which removes the signal the attacker is measuring. .NET provides CryptographicOperations.FixedTimeEquals for exactly this purpose.
    • BIncorrect. A longer tag means the attacker has to recover more bytes, but each byte still leaks through timing. The leak is in the comparison code, not in the strength of the hash.
    • CIncorrect. Nonces and timestamps stop replay attacks. Here the attacker is not replaying captured messages. They are submitting new forgeries and timing the responses.
    • DIncorrect. TLS protects confidentiality in transit, but the attacker is a legitimate client of the endpoint and can still measure how long each response takes. Encryption does not remove the timing difference.

Security Architecture and Engineering: FAQs

How much of the CISSP exam is Security Architecture and Engineering?

Security Architecture and Engineering is 13% of the CISSP exam by the official exam guide's weighting, which on a 125-question form works out to roughly 16 questions. The real exam's exact split varies by form.

What does the Security Architecture and Engineering domain cover?

Building security into systems: models, secure design, cryptography and physical security.

How should I study Security Architecture and Engineering for CISSP?

Understand what each security model protects (confidentiality vs integrity) rather than memorising rules alone.

Where can I practise more Security Architecture and Engineering questions?

This page has 10 free Security Architecture and Engineering questions with answers. CertRidge's CISSP question bank has 82 questions in this domain. Every practice exam result breaks your score down by domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Get Security Architecture and Engineering exam-ready

The full CISSP bank has 82 Security Architecture and Engineering questions. Timed practice exams match the real exam's length and domain weights, every result shows your score per domain, and Review Mode re-drills the questions you missed.

Not affiliated with ISC2; questions are original and never copied from the real exam.